UPSC IAS

11. In addition to fingerprint scanning, which of the following can be use

In addition to fingerprint scanning, which of the following can be used in the biometric identification of a person?

  • 1. Iris scanning
  • 2. Retinal scanning
  • 3. Voice recognition

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

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1 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2014
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The correct answer is D) 1, 2 and 3. Fingerprint scanning is a well-known biometric identification method. In addition to this, iris scanning, retinal scanning, and voice recognition are also established and widely used biometric techniques for identifying individuals based on unique physiological or behavioral characteristics.
Biometric identification uses distinct biological or behavioral traits to verify a person’s identity. Common biometric modalities include fingerprints, iris patterns, retinal blood vessel patterns, facial features, voice characteristics, and gait.
Iris scanning analyzes the complex patterns in the colored part of the eye (iris). Retinal scanning analyzes the unique pattern of blood vessels at the back of the eye (retina). Voice recognition analyzes vocal characteristics, pitch, tone, and speaking patterns. All three listed options (iris scanning, retinal scanning, and voice recognition) are valid methods used for biometric identification.

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12. Which one of the following is the process involved in photosynthesis?

Which one of the following is the process involved in photosynthesis?

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Potential energy is released to form free energy
Free energy is converted into potential energy and stored
Food is oxidized to release carbon dioxide and water
Oxygen is taken, and carbon dioxide and water vapour are given out
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UPSC IAS – 2014
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Photosynthesis is the process by which plants, algae, and some bacteria convert light energy into chemical energy.
A) Potential energy is released to form free energy: This describes processes like respiration (breakdown of glucose to release energy) or combustion, where stored chemical energy (potential) is converted into usable energy (free).
B) Free energy is converted into potential energy and stored: In photosynthesis, light energy from the sun (a form of free energy) is absorbed and converted into chemical energy stored in the bonds of glucose molecules (a form of potential energy). This is the fundamental energy conversion process in photosynthesis.
C) Food is oxidized to release carbon dioxide and water: This describes respiration, where organic food molecules are broken down in the presence of oxygen to release energy, carbon dioxide, and water.
D) Oxygen is taken, and carbon dioxide and water vapour are given out: Plants take in carbon dioxide and water for photosynthesis and release oxygen as a byproduct. Taking in oxygen and giving out carbon dioxide and water is the process of respiration (which plants also do).
– Photosynthesis uses light energy (free energy) to synthesize organic compounds (food).
– Chemical energy is stored in the bonds of these organic compounds (potential energy).
– The process converts light energy into chemical energy.
The overall equation for photosynthesis is: $6\text{CO}_2 + 6\text{H}_2\text{O} + \text{Light Energy} \rightarrow \text{C}_6\text{H}_{12}\text{O}_6 + 6\text{O}_2$. This shows that carbon dioxide and water, using light energy, are converted into glucose (sugar) and oxygen.

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13. With reference to Neem tree, consider the following statements : 1.

With reference to Neem tree, consider the following statements :

  • 1. Neem oil can be used as a pesticide to control the proliferation of some species of insects and mites.
  • 2. Neem seeds are used in the manufacture of biofuels and hospital detergents.
  • 3. Neem oil has applications in pharmaceutical industry.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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1 and 2 only
3 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2014
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The Neem tree (Azadirachta indica) is renowned for its various uses, particularly derived from its seeds and leaves.
Statement 1 is correct: Neem oil contains compounds like azadirachtin which act as natural insecticides, repellent, and growth regulators for a wide range of insects and mites. It is widely used as a biopesticide.
Statement 2 is correct: Neem seeds contain oil that can be used for making soap (a component in detergents) and has potential as a non-edible oil source for biodiesel production (biofuels). While ‘hospital detergents’ is specific, the use in soap/detergents and potential for biofuels from seeds is established.
Statement 3 is correct: Neem and its derivatives have a long history of use in traditional medicine (Ayurveda, Unani). Modern research has explored its potential in pharmaceuticals for its antifungal, antibacterial, antiviral, anti-inflammatory, and other properties.
– Neem products, especially neem oil from seeds, have insecticidal properties.
– Neem oil is used in soap/detergent making and explored for biofuel production.
– Neem has medicinal properties and applications in the pharmaceutical industry.
The numerous applications of Neem tree have led to it being called “Sarva Rog Nivarni” (curer of all ailments) or “village pharmacy” in India. Its eco-friendly pesticidal properties are particularly valued in organic farming.

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14. Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in

Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India :

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  • 1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.
  • 2. A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2014
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Statement 1 is correct: The term “No-Confidence Motion” is not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution of India. However, the principle underlying it is derived from Article 75(3), which stipulates the collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers to the House of the People (Lok Sabha). The procedure for moving a No-Confidence Motion is laid down in Rule 198 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Lok Sabha.
Statement 2 is correct: According to Article 75(3), the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. Therefore, a No-Confidence Motion, which tests the confidence of the Lok Sabha in the Council of Ministers, can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha, not in the Rajya Sabha.
– The concept of No-Confidence Motion is based on the principle of collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature.
– In India, this principle is enshrined in Article 75(3) (responsibility to Lok Sabha).
– The procedure is detailed in the Lok Sabha’s Rules of Procedure, not directly in the Constitution.
– A No-Confidence Motion can only be moved in the Lok Sabha.
A No-Confidence Motion needs the support of at least 50 members to be admitted in the Lok Sabha. If admitted, it is debated, and if passed by a majority of the members present and voting, the Council of Ministers must resign. The Rajya Sabha can discuss government policies but cannot pass a No-Confidence Motion against the Council of Ministers.

15. Consider the following statements: 1. The President shall make rules

Consider the following statements:

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  • 1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
  • 2. All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2014
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Statement 1 is correct: Article 77(3) of the Constitution states, “The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.” These are known as the ‘Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules’ and ‘Government of India (Transaction of Business) Rules’.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 77(1) of the Constitution states, “All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the *President*.” While the Prime Minister is the head of the Council of Ministers and is responsible for the day-to-day governance, formal executive actions are taken in the name of the President as the constitutional head of the executive.
– The President of India is the formal head of the executive and makes rules for the transaction of government business and allocation of portfolios.
– All executive actions of the Union Government are formally taken in the name of the President.
– The Prime Minister is the real executive head, but acts in the name of the President.
The ‘Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules’ allocate responsibilities among the various Ministries and Departments. The ‘Government of India (Transaction of Business) Rules’ prescribe the procedure for the disposal of business by the government, including matters requiring submission to the Cabinet, Cabinet Committees, or the President.

16. If the interest rate is decreased in an economy, it will

If the interest rate is decreased in an economy, it will

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decrease the consumption expenditure in the economy
increase the tax collection of the Government
increase the investment expenditure in the economy
increase the total savings in the economy
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A decrease in the interest rate makes borrowing money cheaper.
A) decrease the consumption expenditure: Lower interest rates generally make it cheaper for consumers to borrow for purchases (like vehicles, homes) or to use credit, which tends to *increase* consumption expenditure, not decrease it. Also, lower returns on savings encourage spending.
B) increase the tax collection of the Government: While stimulating economic activity might eventually lead to higher tax collection, this is an indirect and not the most direct or immediate effect of a decreased interest rate.
C) increase the investment expenditure in the economy: Businesses often borrow money to finance investments in capital goods, expansion, research, etc. A lower interest rate reduces the cost of borrowing, making more investment projects financially viable and thus encouraging businesses to increase investment expenditure. This is a primary channel through which monetary policy (via interest rates) affects the economy.
D) increase the total savings in the economy: A lower interest rate means a lower return on savings. This makes saving less attractive relative to spending or investing, potentially leading to a *decrease* in the rate of saving or total savings, not an increase.
– Interest rates represent the cost of borrowing and the return on saving.
– Lower interest rates make borrowing cheaper and saving less attractive.
– Cheaper borrowing stimulates investment by businesses and consumption by households.
Central banks use interest rates as a tool of monetary policy. Decreasing interest rates (expansionary policy) is often used to stimulate economic growth during a slowdown by encouraging spending and investment. Conversely, increasing interest rates (contractionary policy) is used to curb inflation by making borrowing expensive and encouraging saving.

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17. Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Gover

Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State?

  1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing President’s rule
  2. Appointing the Ministers
  3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India
  4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

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1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1, 2, 3 and 4
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2014
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The Governor of a state exercises powers on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, except when the Constitution explicitly allows or requires them to act in their discretion.
Statement 1 is correct: Article 356 of the Constitution allows the President to impose President’s Rule in a state if satisfied, based on a report from the Governor or otherwise, that the government cannot be carried on in accordance with the Constitution. The Governor’s report is often based on their subjective assessment of the situation, which is considered a discretionary function.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Governor appoints the Chief Minister (leader of the majority party) and other ministers on the *advice* of the Chief Minister. This is a formal duty executed upon advice, not a discretionary power.
Statement 3 is correct: Article 200 of the Constitution allows the Governor to reserve certain bills passed by the state legislature for the consideration of the President of India. The Constitution gives the Governor discretion in deciding whether to reserve a bill (e.g., if it endangers the position of the High Court, or if it is ultra vires the Constitution).
Statement 4 is incorrect: Rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of the State are made by the Governor under Article 166(3) on the advice of the Council of Ministers. This is not a discretionary power.
– The Governor acts on aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, except for specific situations requiring discretion.
– Discretionary powers include sending reports for President’s Rule and reserving bills for the President.
– Appointing ministers (on CM’s advice) and making business rules (on Council’s advice) are not discretionary.
Other instances of discretionary power for the Governor might include appointing the Chief Minister when no single party has a clear majority after an election, or dismissing the Council of Ministers when it has lost the confidence of the legislative assembly but refuses to resign.

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18. Consider the following statements : A Constitutional Government is one

Consider the following statements :
A Constitutional Government is one which

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  1. places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority
  2. places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
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UPSC IAS – 2014
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A Constitutional Government is characterized by limitations placed on governmental power by a constitution or a set of fundamental laws. These limitations are primarily aimed at protecting the rights and liberties of individuals.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Placing effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority describes an authoritarian or totalitarian state, where the state’s power is supreme and individual rights are subservient to it.
Statement 2 is correct: A core principle of constitutionalism is that the authority of the State is limited by the constitution to safeguard individual liberty and prevent arbitrary rule. This ensures that the government acts within defined boundaries and respects fundamental rights.
– A constitutional government operates under the rule of law, where the government’s powers are defined and limited by the constitution.
– The primary purpose of these limitations is to protect citizens’ rights and freedoms.
– It stands in contrast to unlimited or arbitrary government.
Constitutionalism is a complex concept that includes aspects like separation of powers, checks and balances, rule of law, protection of fundamental rights, and independent judiciary, all of which contribute to limiting state power in favour of individual liberty and ensuring accountable governance.

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19. Which of the following is/are the function/functions of the Cabinet Se

Which of the following is/are the function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?

  1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings
  2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees
  3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

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1 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
1, 2 and 3
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2014
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The Cabinet Secretariat functions under the direct charge of the Prime Minister. It is the administrative headquarters of the Cabinet.
Statement 1 is correct: One of the key functions of the Cabinet Secretariat is the preparation of the agenda and related papers for Cabinet Meetings.
Statement 2 is correct: The Cabinet Secretariat provides secretarial assistance and organizational support to the various Cabinet Committees.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries is primarily the function of the Ministry of Finance, based on budgetary provisions and approvals by the Parliament and the Cabinet. The Cabinet Secretariat does not have the power to allocate funds directly to ministries. Its role is supportive to the decision-making process of the Cabinet, which might involve discussions on resource allocation proposals.
– The Cabinet Secretariat is the administrative and secretarial support system for the Union Cabinet and its Committees.
– Its main tasks involve facilitating the transaction of government business, preparing cabinet meeting agendas, and providing secretarial support.
– It does not handle the financial allocation function, which falls under the purview of the Ministry of Finance.
The Cabinet Secretariat ensures that the business of the Government of India is conducted in accordance with the Rules of Business. The Cabinet Secretary is the administrative head of the Cabinet Secretariat and is also the head of the Civil Services Board.

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20. Which of the following are associated with ‘Planning’ in India? The

Which of the following are associated with ‘Planning’ in India?

  1. The Finance Commission
  2. The National Development Council
  3. The Union Ministry of Rural Development
  4. The Union Ministry of Urban Development
  5. The Parliament

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1, 2 and 5 only
1, 3 and 4 only
2 and 5 only
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
This question was previously asked in
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In the context of historical planning in India (primarily through Five Year Plans before the establishment of NITI Aayog), the National Development Council (NDC) and the Parliament were directly involved in the planning process.
Statement 2 is correct: The National Development Council (NDC), composed of the Prime Minister, Union Cabinet Ministers, Chief Ministers of all States, and members of the Planning Commission (now NITI Aayog), was the highest decision-making body for approving Five Year Plans and national development policies.
Statement 5 is correct: The Parliament discusses and approves the Five Year Plans, the Union Budget (which allocates resources based on the plans), and passes legislation related to economic and social development, thus playing a crucial role in the planning framework.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Finance Commission is a constitutional body (Article 280) whose primary function is to recommend the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and States and grants-in-aid. While its recommendations are vital for resource allocation which supports planned development, the Finance Commission itself was not directly part of the *process* of formulating or approving the Five Year Plans.
Statements 3 and 4 are incorrect: The Union Ministries of Rural Development and Urban Development are implementing agencies. They execute specific schemes and projects aligned with the overall plan objectives but are not considered bodies primarily associated with the *process* of national planning itself.
– Historically, planning in India was centralized under the Planning Commission, approved by the National Development Council (NDC), and subject to parliamentary oversight and approval.
– The Finance Commission deals with fiscal federalism and resource distribution, a distinct role from the planning commission/NDC’s function of drafting and approving development plans.
– Ministries implement planned programmes but are not the apex planning bodies.
With the abolition of the Planning Commission and the establishment of NITI Aayog in 2015, the formal structure of centralized Five Year Plans and the NDC’s role in approving them has changed. NITI Aayog serves as a think tank and policy advisory body. However, this question refers to the historical context of planning in India.

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