UPSC IAS Archives

11. Which one of the following was the latest inclusion in the Intangible

Which one of the following was the latest inclusion in the Intangible Cultural Heritage List of UNESCO ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Chhau dance” option2=”Durga puja” option3=”Garba dance” option4=”Kumbh mela” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2024

The correct option is C.

Garba dance of Gujarat was inscribed on the UNESCO Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity in December 2023, making it the latest inclusion among the given options at that time.

Other options and their inscription years are: Chhau dance (2010), Durga puja in Kolkata (2021), and Kumbh Mela (2017). As of December 2023, India has 15 elements inscribed on the Representative List of Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity.

12. Consider the following statements : 1. India is a member of the Int

Consider the following statements :

1. India is a member of the International Grains Council.
2. A country needs to be a member of the International Grains Council for exporting or importing rice and wheat.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option1″]

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UPSC IAS – 2024

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The correct option is A.

Statement 1 is correct. India is a member country of the International Grains Council (IGC), an intergovernmental organization that seeks to promote international co-operation in grain trade and collects market information.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Membership in the International Grains Council is not a mandatory requirement for a country to export or import rice and wheat. Countries engage in international trade of these commodities based on bilateral agreements, WTO regulations, and other trade arrangements, irrespective of IGC membership.

The IGC was established in 1949 as the International Wheat Council and was renamed in 1998 to include coarse grains and rice. Its mission includes furthering international co-operation in grains trade and encouraging expansion of trade.

13. Consider the following statements : 1. There are no parables in Upa

Consider the following statements :

1. There are no parables in Upanishads.
2. Upanishads were composed earlier than the Puranas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option2″]

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The correct option is B.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Upanishads, while primarily philosophical texts based on dialogues and discussions, do contain illustrative stories and analogies, which can be considered parables or fables, used to explain complex concepts (e.g., the story of Nachiketa in Katha Upanishad).
Statement 2 is correct. The Upanishads are considered part of the later Vedic literature and generally predate the Puranas, which are part of the post-Vedic Smriti literature compiled much later, around the 4th to 16th centuries CE.

The major Upanishads are believed to have been composed between 800 BCE and 400 BCE. The Puranas are a vast genre of Indian literature containing narratives about the history of the Universe, genealogies of kings, heroes, sages, and demigods, and cosmogony, philosophy, and geography.

14. With reference to revenue collection by Cornwallis, consider the follo

With reference to revenue collection by Cornwallis, consider the following statements :

1. Under the Ryotwari Settlement of revenue collection, the peasants were exempted from revenue payment in case of bad harvests or natural calamities.
2. Under the Permanent Settlement in Bengal, if the Zamindar failed to pay his revenues to the state, on or before the fixed date, he would be removed from his Zamindari.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2024

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The correct option is B.

Statement 1 is incorrect. While the Ryotwari system involved direct settlement with the cultivator (ryot), it often fixed high revenue demands, and exemptions or reductions during bad harvests were not guaranteed and depended on administrative discretion, often leading to hardship.
Statement 2 is correct. The Permanent Settlement introduced by Cornwallis in Bengal included a strict ‘Sunset Clause’. If the Zamindar failed to pay the fixed revenue by the specified date (sunset of the last day of payment), his Zamindari rights were forfeited, and the estate was auctioned off.

The Permanent Settlement (1793) was introduced in Bengal, Bihar, and Odisha. The Ryotwari Settlement was introduced primarily in Madras and Bombay Presidencies by Thomas Munro and others. Another major revenue system was the Mahalwari Settlement in North-Western Provinces, Punjab, and parts of Central India.

15. Who of the following rulers of medieval India gave permission to the P

Who of the following rulers of medieval India gave permission to the Portuguese to build a fort at Bhatkal ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Krishnadevaraya” option2=”Narasimha Saluva” option3=”Muhammad Shah III” option4=”Yusuf Adil Shah” correct=”option1″]

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UPSC IAS – 2024

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The correct answer is A, Krishnadevaraya.

Bhatkal was a significant port town under the control of the Vijayanagara Empire during the early 16th century. Krishnadevaraya, who reigned from 1509 to 1529, was one of the most powerful rulers of the Vijayanagara Empire. The Portuguese, establishing their presence on the west coast of India after Vasco da Gama’s arrival, sought to control or gain access to profitable trading ports like Bhatkal, which was important for pepper trade. Historical accounts indicate that the Portuguese interacted and made agreements with the Vijayanagara rulers, including Krishnadevaraya, securing trade privileges and permission to build factories and fortifications in their territories, including Bhatkal.

The relationship between the Vijayanagara Empire and the Portuguese was complex, involving trade alliances against common enemies (like the Deccan Sultanates) as well as competition and conflict over coastal territories and trade routes. The Portuguese presence significantly impacted the maritime trade landscape of the region.

16. Consider the following information : Archaeological Site State

Consider the following information :

	Archaeological Site	State	Description
1.	Chandraketugarh	Odisha	Trading Port town
2.	Inamgaon	Maharashtra	Chalcolithic site
3.	Mangadu	Kerala	Megalithic site
4.	Salihundam	Andhra Pradesh	Rock-cut cave shrines

In which of the above rows is the given information correctly matched ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2″ option2=”2 and 3″ option3=”3 and 4″ option4=”1 and 4″ correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2024

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The correct answer is B, indicating that only rows 2 and 3 are correctly matched.

1. Chandraketugarh is an archaeological site located in West Bengal, not Odisha. It was indeed an important ancient port city and urban centre, but the state is incorrectly matched.
2. Inamgaon is a major archaeological site located in Maharashtra. It is a significant and well-studied Chalcolithic period site, known for its evidence of early farming villages in the Deccan region. This row is correctly matched.
3. Mangadu is a place in Kerala, and archaeological findings including megalithic burials have been reported from sites in or near Mangadu in Kerala. While perhaps not as famous as some other megalithic sites, the description as a “Megalithic site” in Kerala is considered correct in this context.
4. Salihundam is an important Buddhist archaeological site in Andhra Pradesh. It features structural remains of stupas, chaityas, viharas, and monastic complexes, as well as sculptures and inscriptions. It is not primarily known for “Rock-cut cave shrines” in the way sites like Ajanta or Ellora are. While there might be minor rock-cut elements, this description is generally inaccurate for Salihundam.

Archaeological sites provide crucial evidence for reconstructing ancient history. Chandraketugarh highlights ancient trade networks, Inamgaon provides insights into early village life and farming, Mangadu (in the context of Kerala) points to the widespread practice of megalithic traditions in South India, and Salihundam is important for understanding the spread of Buddhism in the region.

17. With reference to ancient India, Gautama Buddha was generally known by

With reference to ancient India, Gautama Buddha was generally known by which of the following epithets ?

1. Nayaputta
2. Shakyamuni
3. Tathagata

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 and 3 only” option3=”1, 2 and 3″ option4=”None of the above are epithets of Gautama Buddha” correct=”option2″]

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UPSC IAS – 2024

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The correct answer is B, which includes epithets 2 and 3.

1. Nayaputta is an epithet associated with Mahavira (Vardhamana), the 24th Tirthankara of Jainism, who belonged to the Jnatrika (Naya) clan. It is not an epithet of Gautama Buddha.
2. Shakyamuni means “Sage of the Shakyas”. Gautama Buddha was born into the Shakya clan and is frequently referred to by this title, particularly in Mahayana Buddhism. This is a correct epithet.
3. Tathagata is a term used by Gautama Buddha when referring to himself. Its meaning is debated but broadly translates to “one who has thus come” or “one who has thus gone,” signifying one who has attained ultimate truth. It is one of the principal epithets of Buddha. This is a correct epithet.

Gautama Buddha is also known by other names and titles, such as Siddhartha Gautama (his birth name), Bhagavan (Blessed One), Sugata (Well-Gone), and Jina (Victor, although this term is more strongly associated with Jainism, it is also sometimes applied to Buddha).

18. Consider the following statements in respect of the digital rupee :

Consider the following statements in respect of the digital rupee :

1. It is a sovereign currency issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in alignment with its monetary policy.
2. It appears as a liability on the RBI’s balance sheet.
3. It is insured against inflation by its very design.
4. It is freely convertible against commercial bank money and cash.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”1 and 3 only” option3=”2 and 4 only” option4=”1, 2 and 4″ correct=”option4″]

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The correct answer is D, including statements 1, 2, and 4.

Statement 1 is correct. The digital rupee (CBDC) is envisioned as a digital form of India’s sovereign currency (the Rupee), issued directly by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in accordance with its monetary policy objectives.
Statement 2 is correct. Similar to physical currency, CBDC represents a direct liability of the central bank (RBI) to the holder. It is essentially a claim on the central bank.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The design of the digital rupee does not inherently provide insurance against inflation. Like physical currency, its purchasing power would be subject to macroeconomic factors and inflationary pressures managed by the RBI through monetary policy. Its value is pegged 1:1 with the physical rupee.
Statement 4 is correct. As a digital equivalent of physical currency, the digital rupee is intended to be freely convertible with other forms of money, such as commercial bank deposits (commercial bank money) and physical cash.

The RBI has launched pilot projects for both wholesale and retail versions of the digital rupee (e₹). CBDCs aim to provide benefits like efficiency, innovation, and financial inclusion, while also raising questions about privacy, security, and potential impact on the banking system.

19. Consider the following statements : Statement-I : Syndicated lending s

Consider the following statements :
Statement-I :
Syndicated lending spreads the risk of borrower default across multiple lenders.
Statement-II :
The syndicated loan can be a fixed amount/lump sum of funds, but cannot be a credit line.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I” option2=”Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I” option3=”Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect” option4=”Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct” correct=”option3″]

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UPSC IAS – 2024

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The correct answer is C, indicating that Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.

Statement-I is correct. Syndicated lending involves a group of banks or financial institutions pooling resources to provide a large loan to a single borrower. This arrangement spreads the risk of the borrower defaulting across multiple lenders, reducing the exposure for any individual participant.
Statement-II is incorrect. Syndicated loans can be structured in various forms. While term loans (fixed amount/lump sum) are common, syndicated facilities can also be structured as revolving credit facilities, which function like a credit line allowing the borrower to draw, repay, and redraw funds up to a specified limit over a period. Therefore, a syndicated loan *can* be a credit line.

Syndicated loans are commonly used for large corporate borrowings, project financing, and leveraged buyouts. The syndicate is typically led by one or more lead banks (arrangers) who manage the process.

20. Consider the following statements : Statement-I : If the United States

Consider the following statements :
Statement-I :
If the United States of America (USA) were to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury Bonds will not be able to exercise their claims to receive payment.
Statement-II :
The USA Government debt is not backed by any hard assets, but only by the faith of the Government.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?

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UPSC IAS – 2024

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The correct answer is B, indicating that both statements are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.

Statement-I is correct. If a sovereign nation like the USA defaults on its debt (fails to make scheduled payments on its bonds), the bondholders will not be able to receive the promised payments at the scheduled time. While bondholders may eventually negotiate a resolution (like restructuring or partial payment), their claim to receive payment as originally agreed upon is effectively unenforceable through standard legal means against a sovereign defaulter.
Statement-II is correct. US Government debt is backed by the “full faith and credit” of the US government, which essentially means its ability to tax, borrow, and manage its economy, as well as its reputation and willingness to pay. It is not typically backed by specific physical assets like land or gold reserves.
While both statements are correct, Statement-II (the nature of the backing) does not explain Statement-I (the consequence of default). Default simply means failure to pay, regardless of what backs the debt. The type of backing might influence the severity of the default or the potential for recovery, but it doesn’t explain the fundamental event of non-payment.

A sovereign default is a serious event with potentially severe consequences for the defaulting country’s economy and reputation, as well as for global financial markets. It can lead to increased borrowing costs, difficulty accessing future credit, and economic instability. The concept of “full faith and credit” is crucial to the stability of government bonds.