UPSC CISF-AC-EXE Archives

41. Which one of the following statements about Panchayati Raj Institution

Which one of the following statements about Panchayati Raj Institutions in India is not correct ?

Not less than one-third of the total number of the offices of Chairpersons in the Panchayats at each level are reserved for women

Reservation for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes are provided for at all the three levels of local bodies

States can provide for reservations for the Other Backward Classes (OBCs), if needed

State Election Commissioner is appointed by the President of India on the advice of the Governor to conduct Panchayat elections

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The statement that is not correct is D. The State Election Commissioner responsible for conducting Panchayat elections is appointed by the Governor of the respective state, not the President of India.

– Statement A is correct: Article 243D(4) of the Constitution mandates the reservation of not less than one-third of the total number of offices of Chairpersons in the Panchayats at each level for women.
– Statement B is correct: Article 243D(1) provides for reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in proportion to their population in every Panchayat at all three levels (Gram, Intermediate, and District).
– Statement C is correct: Article 243D(6) allows the Legislature of a State to make provisions for reservation of seats or offices of Chairpersons in the Panchayats in favour of backward classes of citizens (OBCs).
– Statement D is incorrect: Article 243K(1) vests the power of superintendence, direction, and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for and the conduct of all elections to the Panchayats in a State Election Commission. Article 243K(2) specifies that the State Election Commissioner shall be appointed by the Governor of the State.

The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions. This Act added Part IX to the Constitution, which includes provisions regarding the composition, duration, reservation of seats, powers, functions, and elections of Panchayats. The establishment of a State Election Commission independent of the Election Commission of India is a key feature ensuring free and fair elections to local bodies.

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42. As per the Census of India 2011, which one among the following Schedul

As per the Census of India 2011, which one among the following Scheduled Languages of India has the highest percentage of speakers ?

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Bengali

Marathi

Telugu

Urdu

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As per the Census of India 2011, among the given options, Bengali has the highest percentage of speakers among the Scheduled Languages listed.

– The Census of India 2011 provides detailed data on the distribution of speakers for various languages in India, including the 22 languages listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution (Scheduled Languages).
– According to the 2011 census data:
– Hindi is the most spoken language in India, with about 43.63% of the population reporting it as their mother tongue.
– Bengali is the second most spoken language, with about 8.03% of the population.
– Marathi is the third most spoken language, with about 6.86% of the population.
– Telugu is the fourth most spoken language, with about 6.70% of the population.
– Urdu is listed as the 7th most spoken language, with about 4.19% of the population.
– Comparing the percentages for the given options (Bengali 8.03%, Marathi 6.86%, Telugu 6.70%, Urdu 4.19%), Bengali has the highest percentage of speakers.

Understanding the linguistic diversity of India and the relative percentages of speakers for major languages is important for understanding the social and cultural landscape of the country. The Census data is the primary source for this information. The Eighth Schedule lists the official languages recognized by the Government of India.

43. Who amongst the following has not occupied the office of both Presid

Who amongst the following has not occupied the office of both President and Vice President of India ?

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Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan

Zakir Hussain

K.R. Narayanan

Neelam Sanjiva Reddy

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The person who has *not* occupied the office of both President and Vice President of India is Neelam Sanjiva Reddy.

– Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan served as the first Vice President (1952-1962) and the second President (1962-1967).
– Zakir Hussain served as the third Vice President (1962-1967) and the third President (1967-1969).
– K.R. Narayanan served as the ninth Vice President (1992-1997) and the tenth President (1997-2002).
– Neelam Sanjiva Reddy served as the sixth President of India (1977-1982). He held other prominent positions like Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh and Speaker of the Lok Sabha, but he never served as the Vice President of India.

The list of Indian Presidents and Vice Presidents is a common topic for factual questions in competitive exams. Knowing the order and the offices held by key figures is important. Several individuals have held both the Vice President and President offices, including V.V. Giri, R. Venkataraman, Shankar Dayal Sharma, and Pranab Mukherjee, in addition to those listed in the options.

44. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?

Which one of the following statements is not correct ?

Goa was established as a State by separating it from Union Territory of Daman and Diu in 1987

Mizoram was earlier a Union Territory

Karnataka was created by the States Reorganisation Act, 1956

The State of Bombay was bifurcated into Gujarat and Maharashtra in 1960

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The statement that is *not* correct is D. The State Election Commissioner is appointed by the Governor of the concerned state, not the President of India.

– Statement A is correct: Goa was made a full state in 1987 by separating it from the Union Territory of Goa, Daman and Diu (56th Constitutional Amendment Act).
– Statement B is correct: Mizoram was a Union Territory before attaining statehood in 1987 (53rd Constitutional Amendment Act).
– Statement C is correct: Karnataka (initially named Mysore State) was formed by the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. Its name was changed to Karnataka in 1973.
– Statement D is incorrect: Article 243K(1) of the Constitution states that the State Election Commissioner for Panchayats is appointed by the Governor of the state. The President appoints the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners of India, but not the State Election Commissioner for local bodies.

The creation and reorganisation of states in India has been a significant process post-independence. The States Reorganisation Act, 1956 was a major step in this direction, reorganizing states based on linguistic lines. The status and appointment of the State Election Commissioner are governed by the provisions added by the 73rd (Panchayats) and 74th (Municipalities) Constitutional Amendment Acts of 1992, which established the Panchayati Raj system as a constitutional body.

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45. In a party, each person takes at least one beverage. There are three b

In a party, each person takes at least one beverage. There are three beverages in the party – tea, coffee and milk. Each beverage is consumed by 30 persons. Five persons, who take tea, also take milk. Ten persons, who take milk, also take coffee. However, no person takes tea and coffee both. How many persons are there in the party ?

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The correct answer is 75 persons. This can be determined using the principle of inclusion-exclusion for sets, given the information about beverage consumption.

– Let T, C, and M represent the sets of people who take Tea, Coffee, and Milk, respectively.
– We are given: |T| = 30, |C| = 30, |M| = 30.
– |T ∩ M| = 5 (Persons who take tea and milk).
– |M ∩ C| = 10 (Persons who take milk and coffee).
– |T ∩ C| = 0 (No person takes tea and coffee both).
– Since no one takes tea and coffee together (|T ∩ C| = 0), it implies that no one takes tea, coffee, *and* milk together (|T ∩ C ∩ M| = 0).
– Each person takes at least one beverage, so the total number of persons in the party is the size of the union of the three sets: |T ∪ C ∪ M|.
– The Principle of Inclusion-Exclusion for three sets is:
|T ∪ C ∪ M| = |T| + |C| + |M| – (|T ∩ C| + |T ∩ M| + |C ∩ M|) + |T ∩ C ∩ M|
– Substitute the given values:
|T ∪ C ∪ M| = 30 + 30 + 30 – (0 + 5 + 10) + 0
|T ∪ C ∪ M| = 90 – 15 + 0
|T ∪ C ∪ M| = 75.

This problem can also be visualized using a Venn diagram. Starting with the intersections, we know |T ∩ C| = 0. Given |T ∩ M| = 5 and |M ∩ C| = 10, and |T ∩ C ∩ M| = 0, the people taking exactly two beverages are:
– Tea and Milk only: 5 – 0 = 5
– Milk and Coffee only: 10 – 0 = 10
– Tea and Coffee only: 0
People taking only one beverage:
– Tea only: |T| – (|T ∩ M| + |T ∩ C|) + |T ∩ C ∩ M| = 30 – (5 + 0) + 0 = 25
– Coffee only: |C| – (|C ∩ M| + |C ∩ T|) + |T ∩ C ∩ M| = 30 – (10 + 0) + 0 = 20
– Milk only: |M| – (|M ∩ T| + |M ∩ C|) + |T ∩ C ∩ M| = 30 – (5 + 10) + 0 = 15
Total persons = (Tea only) + (Coffee only) + (Milk only) + (Tea & Milk only) + (Milk & Coffee only) + (Tea & Coffee only) + (All three)
Total = 25 + 20 + 15 + 5 + 10 + 0 + 0 = 75.

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46. A wire is in the shape of a circle. It is straightened and reshaped in

A wire is in the shape of a circle. It is straightened and reshaped into a rectangle whose sides are in the ratio 6 : 7. If the area of the rectangle is 4200 sq. cm, the radius of circle is, approximately :

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40 cm

42 cm

41 cm

35 cm

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The correct answer is approximately 41 cm. The radius of the circle is determined by equating its circumference to the perimeter of the rectangle, which is derived from the rectangle’s area and side ratio.

– The wire is reshaped, meaning the perimeter of the circle is equal to the perimeter of the rectangle.
– Rectangle sides are in the ratio 6:7. Let the sides be 6x and 7x.
– Area of rectangle = length * width = (6x)(7x) = 42x².
– Given area = 4200 sq. cm.
– 42x² = 4200 => x² = 4200 / 42 = 100 => x = 10 cm.
– Sides of the rectangle are 6 * 10 = 60 cm and 7 * 10 = 70 cm.
– Perimeter of rectangle = 2 * (length + width) = 2 * (60 + 70) = 2 * 130 = 260 cm.
– Circumference of the circle = 2πr, where r is the radius.
– Perimeter of circle = Perimeter of rectangle => 2πr = 260 cm.
– πr = 130 cm.
– r = 130 / π.
– Using the approximation π ≈ 3.14: r ≈ 130 / 3.14 ≈ 41.40 cm.
– Using the approximation π ≈ 22/7: r ≈ 130 / (22/7) = 130 * 7 / 22 = 910 / 22 = 455 / 11 ≈ 41.36 cm.
– The value approximately matches 41 cm.

This problem connects the concepts of area and perimeter for different geometric shapes. The key insight is that when a wire is reshaped, its total length (which corresponds to the perimeter of the original shape and the new shape) remains constant.

47. In a swimming competition, the players were asked to swim 9 km upstrea

In a swimming competition, the players were asked to swim 9 km upstream and then swim back to the point of starting. The winner of the competition could complete the task in 1 hour and 30 minutes. If the speed of the current of the river water was 8 km/hr, the speed of the winner is :

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16 km/hr

20 km/hr

14 km/hr

18 km/hr

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The correct answer is 16 km/hr. This is the speed of the winner (swimmer) in still water, calculated based on the total time taken for the upstream and downstream journey.

– Let the speed of the swimmer in still water be ‘s’ km/hr.
– Speed of the current = 8 km/hr.
– Upstream speed (against the current) = (s – 8) km/hr.
– Downstream speed (with the current) = (s + 8) km/hr.
– Distance upstream = 9 km.
– Distance downstream = 9 km.
– Total time = 1 hour 30 minutes = 1.5 hours.
– Time upstream = Distance / Upstream speed = 9 / (s – 8) hours.
– Time downstream = Distance / Downstream speed = 9 / (s + 8) hours.
– Total time equation: 9/(s – 8) + 9/(s + 8) = 1.5
– Multiply the equation by (s – 8)(s + 8): 9(s + 8) + 9(s – 8) = 1.5(s – 8)(s + 8)
– 9s + 72 + 9s – 72 = 1.5(s² – 64)
– 18s = 1.5s² – 96
– Multiply by 2: 36s = 3s² – 192
– Divide by 3: 12s = s² – 64
– Rearrange into a quadratic equation: s² – 12s – 64 = 0
– Factor the equation: (s – 16)(s + 4) = 0
– Possible values for s are 16 or -4. Since speed must be positive, s = 16 km/hr.
– The speed of the swimmer (16 km/hr) must be greater than the speed of the current (8 km/hr) for upstream movement to be possible, which is true (16 > 8).

This is a standard ‘boats and streams’ problem. The crucial concepts are how the speed of the current affects the speed of the swimmer (or boat) upstream and downstream, and setting up the equation based on the total time taken for the round trip.

48. Two trains are approaching each other on parallel tracks. Their length

Two trains are approaching each other on parallel tracks. Their lengths are 700 m and 400 m, respectively. The speed of the first train is 95 km/hr and that of the second train is 125 km/hr. The time required by the trains to cross each other is :

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20 seconds

18 seconds

16 seconds

14 seconds

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The correct answer is 18 seconds. This is calculated by considering the relative speed of the trains approaching each other and the total distance they need to cover to cross each other.

– When two objects move towards each other, their relative speed is the sum of their individual speeds.
– Speed of first train = 95 km/hr.
– Speed of second train = 125 km/hr.
– Relative speed = 95 + 125 = 220 km/hr.
– To convert km/hr to m/s, multiply by 5/18: 220 km/hr = 220 * (5/18) m/s = 1100/18 m/s = 550/9 m/s.
– The total distance the trains must cover to cross each other is the sum of their lengths.
– Length of first train = 700 m.
– Length of second train = 400 m.
– Total distance = 700 + 400 = 1100 m.
– Time taken = Total distance / Relative speed.
– Time = 1100 m / (550/9 m/s) = 1100 * (9/550) seconds = (1100/550) * 9 seconds = 2 * 9 seconds = 18 seconds.

This is a classic problem involving relative speed. The key is to understand that the ‘distance’ covered when trains cross is the sum of their lengths, and when moving towards each other, their speeds add up. If they were moving in the same direction, the relative speed would be the difference between their speeds.

49. Which one of the following protocols is used for secure communication

Which one of the following protocols is used for secure communication over a computer network ?

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HTTPS

HTTP

FTP

DHCP

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The correct answer is HTTPS. HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure) is the protocol used for secure communication over a computer network, particularly on the internet.

– HTTPS is the secure version of HTTP, where ‘S’ stands for Secure.
– It uses SSL/TLS (Secure Sockets Layer/Transport Layer Security) encryption to secure the connection between a user’s browser and a server. This ensures that data transmitted is protected from eavesdropping and tampering.

– HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) is the standard protocol for transmitting web pages but does not provide encryption, making it insecure for sensitive data like passwords or credit card information.
– FTP (File Transfer Protocol) is used for transferring files between computers. While secure versions exist (like SFTP or FTPS), the standard FTP is not secure.
– DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is a network management protocol used for dynamically assigning IP addresses and other network configuration parameters to devices on a network. It is not a communication protocol for data transfer in the same sense as HTTP or HTTPS.

50. The ISO/IEC 27001 Standard is for :

The ISO/IEC 27001 Standard is for :

Information Security Management.

Quality Management.

Risk Management.

Environmental Management.

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The ISO/IEC 27001 standard is the international standard for Information Security Management Systems (ISMS). It provides a framework for organizations to establish, implement, operate, monitor, review, maintain, and improve their information security practices.

ISO/IEC 27001 is the leading international standard specifically focused on Information Security Management.

Other ISO standards cover different management areas: ISO 9001 is for Quality Management Systems, ISO 31000 provides guidelines for Risk Management, and the ISO 14000 family of standards deals with Environmental Management Systems. ISO/IEC 27001 is jointly published by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) and the International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC).

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