UPSC CISF-AC-EXE Archives

41. Which of the following are included under the Employees’ Provident Fun

Which of the following are included under the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952?

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. Employees’ Provident Fund
2. Employees’ Deposit Linked Insurance Scheme
3. Employees’ Permanent Total Disablement Pension
4. Pension of the Employees’ Widows

2, 3 and 4 only

1 and 4 only

1, 2 and 3 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2019

Download PDF Attempt Online

The Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952, is an umbrella Act that empowers the government to frame various schemes for the welfare of employees. The schemes framed under this Act include:
1. The Employees’ Provident Fund Scheme (EPF)
2. The Employees’ Pension Scheme (EPS), 1995 (which provides for various pensions, including disablement and widow pensions)
3. The Employees’ Deposit Linked Insurance Scheme (EDLI)
Therefore, the benefits like Employees’ Permanent Total Disablement Pension (which is a type of disablement pension under EPS) and Pension of the Employees’ Widows (also under EPS) are provided through schemes established under the 1952 Act. All four listed items are either the main schemes or types of benefits provided under the schemes framed by the Act.

– The EPF & MP Act, 1952 is the parent Act for three main schemes: EPF, EPS, and EDLI.
– The Employees’ Pension Scheme (EPS) provides for various forms of pension, including superannuation pension, disability pension, widow pension, and children pension.
– The Employees’ Deposit Linked Insurance Scheme (EDLI) provides life insurance cover.

The Act applies to establishments employing 20 or more persons and engaged in any of the industries specified in Schedule I or notified by the Central Government.

Join Our Telegram Channel

42. Which one of the following substances is not a source of ‘A’ class

Which one of the following substances is not a source of ‘A’ class fire?

Join Our Telegram Channel

Wood

Stainless steel

Paper

Jute

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2019

Download PDF Attempt Online

‘A’ class fires involve ordinary combustible materials such as wood, paper, cloth, rubber, and certain plastics. These materials burn by forming embers. Stainless steel (B) is a metal alloy known for its resistance to rust and corrosion, and it is highly fire-resistant. It does not act as a fuel source for a Class A fire (or typically any other fire class, except possibly in highly specialized, extreme conditions involving metal fires – Class D – which stainless steel isn’t part of in standard classifications). Wood (A), Paper (C), and Jute (D) are all common examples of Class A combustible materials.

– **Class A fires:** Solid combustibles (wood, paper, textiles).
– **Class B fires:** Flammable liquids and gases.
– **Class C fires:** Energized electrical equipment (note: US standard, in some other systems it’s combustible gases).
– **Class D fires:** Combustible metals (magnesium, titanium, sodium, potassium).
– **Class K/F fires:** Cooking oils and fats.
– Stainless steel is a non-combustible material.

Different types of fire extinguishers are rated for different classes of fires. For Class A fires, water-based extinguishers or dry chemical extinguishers are often used.

43. At the time of induction of CISF in an undertaking, the concerned unde

At the time of induction of CISF in an undertaking, the concerned undertaking is required to deposit

Join Our Telegram Channel

an amount equal to six months monthly billing of CISF

an amount equal to three months monthly billing of CISF

an amount equal to two months monthly billing of CISF

an amount equal to one month monthly billing of CISF

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2019

Download PDF Attempt Online

As per the administrative and financial procedures for CISF deployment, undertakings requesting CISF security are required to deposit an amount equal to three months’ estimated monthly billing of CISF charges as an advance payment at the time of induction. This advance is adjusted against future bills. This is a standard administrative requirement to ensure timely payment for the services rendered by the force.

– CISF is a cost-reimbursable force for public sector undertakings and private entities.
– The charges cover the salary and allowances of the deployed personnel, administrative overheads, and other related costs.
– An initial advance payment is required upon deployment to cover initial expenses and serve as a security deposit.
– The standard required advance is typically three months’ billing.

The terms and conditions for CISF deployment, including the billing cycle and advance payment requirements, are governed by specific rules and agreements between the Ministry of Home Affairs (under which CISF functions) and the concerned undertaking.

44. Stand Alone XBlS machines at airports commonly work on the principle

Stand Alone XBlS machines at airports commonly work on the principle of

ion mobility spectrometry

gas chromatography

backscatter technology

electromagnetic radiation

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2019

Download PDF Attempt Online

XBIS (X-ray Baggage Inspection Systems) machines work by using X-rays to create images of the contents of luggage. While standard systems use transmission X-ray technology, advanced “stand-alone” machines, particularly for security screening, often incorporate backscatter technology. Backscatter X-rays provide a different view of the object’s composition and density compared to transmission images, helping to detect organic materials and distinguish layers. Ion mobility spectrometry (A) and gas chromatography (B) are used for trace detection of substances (like explosives or narcotics), not for imaging the bulk contents of baggage. Electromagnetic radiation (D) is too broad a term as X-rays are one form of electromagnetic radiation, but ‘backscatter technology’ describes a specific principle used in X-ray imaging for this purpose.

– XBIS machines use X-rays to scan baggage.
– Transmission X-ray imaging passes X-rays through the object and detects those that penetrate.
– Backscatter X-ray imaging detects the X-rays that are scattered back towards the source, providing information about the surface and composition of the object.
– Many modern security X-ray scanners use both transmission and backscatter techniques for enhanced detection.

Backscatter technology is particularly effective at highlighting organic materials like explosives, drugs, and food, which can be difficult to discern in standard transmission images.

Join Our Telegram Channel

45. During a fire in a building, which one of the following is not require

During a fire in a building, which one of the following is not required to be done by the CISF?

To rescue persons trapped inside the building

To stop spread of fire

To call the fire brigade and help the approach area clear

To start registering FIRs at once

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2019

Download PDF Attempt Online

During a fire incident, the primary responsibilities of security personnel like CISF typically involve immediate life safety and containment measures. This includes rescuing persons trapped (A), attempting to stop the spread of fire if possible and safe (B), and facilitating the work of professional firefighters by calling the fire brigade and clearing access routes (C). Registering FIRs (First Information Reports) is a formal step usually undertaken by the police after the immediate emergency is handled and preliminary assessment of the incident is made, especially if foul play is suspected. It is not an immediate action required “at once” by CISF during an active fire.

– CISF’s role during emergencies like fire is focused on initial response: securing the area, assisting personnel, alerting professional emergency services, and potentially aiding in containment if trained and equipped.
– Registering an FIR is a function of the police (station house officer) based on information received about a cognizable offense. While CISF might report the incident to the police, they do not typically register the FIR themselves in the immediate chaos of an active fire.

CISF has dedicated fire wings in many large industrial undertakings and airports, equipped with specialized firefighting equipment and trained personnel. Their role is critical in the initial response phase before municipal fire services arrive.

Join Our Telegram Channel

46. Which one of the following legal powers has been conferred on CISF dep

Which one of the following legal powers has been conferred on CISF deployed at an undertaking which has been declared as a ‘prohibited place’?

Power of arrest without any order from Magistrate and without a warrant

Power of arrest only with an order from Magistrate

Power of arrest along with power to grant bail in suitable cases

Power of arrest and power to investigate

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2019

Download PDF Attempt Online

The CISF Act, 1968, along with specific notifications declaring certain undertakings/areas as ‘prohibited places’ (often under acts like the Official Secrets Act), grants CISF personnel deployed there specific legal powers. For certain offenses committed within these prohibited areas, CISF personnel may be empowered to arrest without an order from a Magistrate and without a warrant. This enhanced power is crucial for maintaining security in sensitive or vital installations.

– CISF personnel have powers of search, seizure, and arrest, which vary depending on whether they are deployed under the CISF Act alone or also in connection with other laws applicable to the guarded premises (like Official Secrets Act for prohibited places).
– Deployment in a declared ‘prohibited place’ often involves specific gazette notifications conferring enhanced powers necessary for the security of the installation.
– The power of arrest without warrant is a key enhanced power granted in such sensitive areas to deal with immediate threats or offenses.

The extent of CISF’s legal powers is determined by the CISF Act, 1968, and any specific notifications or arrangements pertaining to the protected establishment, including its status as a ‘prohibited place’. This often includes treating CISF personnel as ‘police officers’ for specific purposes within the protected area.

Join Our Telegram Channel

47. Which one of the following is not a high explosive?

Which one of the following is not a high explosive?

Join Our Telegram Channel

PEK

TNT

PETN

Cordite

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2019

Download PDF Attempt Online

Cordite is primarily a propellant, which falls under the category of low explosives or deflagrating explosives, not high explosives. High explosives detonate, while low explosives deflagrate (burn rapidly). TNT (Trinitrotoluene) and PETN (Pentaerythritol tetranitrate) are well-known high explosives used in military, industrial, and terrorist applications. PEK is not a commonly recognized acronym for an explosive substance, but based on the options, Cordite is definitively not a high explosive.

– **High Explosives:** Detonate rapidly, producing a powerful shock wave (e.g., TNT, PETN, RDX).
– **Low Explosives:** Deflagrate (burn rapidly), used as propellants (e.g., Cordite, black powder, smokeless powder).
– Cordite is a composite propellant made from nitrocellulose and nitroglycerine.

The distinction between high and low explosives is crucial in understanding their applications and safety handling procedures. High explosives are used for demolition and warheads, while low explosives are used to propel projectiles (in firearms and artillery) or as propellants in rockets.

48. A passenger who has checked in but not reported to board the flight is

A passenger who has checked in but not reported to board the flight is called

Gate no-show

Cancelled passenger

Transit passenger

Deported passenger

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2019

Download PDF Attempt Online

A passenger who has checked in for a flight but does not present themselves for boarding at the gate before the flight departs is commonly referred to as a “no-show”. Specifically, in aviation terms, this is often categorized as a “Gate no-show”.

– **Gate no-show:** A passenger who has completed the check-in process but fails to arrive at the boarding gate by the specified time.
– Other terms like Cancelled passenger (B) implies they cancelled their reservation.
– Transit passenger (C) refers to a passenger passing through an airport en route to another destination.
– Deported passenger (D) refers to someone being removed from a country.

Airlines track no-shows as it impacts capacity management and potential revenue loss. Depending on the fare rules, airlines may penalize no-shows or cancel subsequent legs of their journey.

Join Our Telegram Channel

49. The pilot who is responsible for operation and safety of the aircraft

The pilot who is responsible for operation and safety of the aircraft during its flight is called

Pilot in Flight

Flight Commander

Co-pilot

Pilot in Command

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2019

Download PDF Attempt Online

In aviation, the pilot designated as being in charge of the aircraft and having the ultimate responsibility for its operation and safety during flight is known as the Pilot in Command (PIC).

The Pilot in Command (PIC) is the specific term for the pilot with final authority and responsibility for the aircraft.

The Co-pilot assists the Pilot in Command, and while both are pilots, only one is designated as the PIC for any given flight. The term “Flight Commander” is more commonly used in military aviation or specific operational contexts, not standard civil aviation terminology for the pilot in charge.

Join Our Telegram Channel

50. Who among the following is responsible for access control to an

Who among the following is responsible for access control to an airport?

Airport Operator

State Government

BCAS

APSU/ASG

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2019

Download PDF Attempt Online

The Airport Operator is the entity responsible for the overall management, operation, and security of the airport premises. This includes implementing and managing the access control system for the airport, ensuring that only authorized personnel and vehicles enter restricted areas. While security forces (APSU/ASG) enforce the access control, and BCAS sets the regulations, the ultimate responsibility for managing the airport’s security infrastructure and ensuring access control is implemented rests with the Airport Operator.

The Airport Operator holds the primary responsibility for the overall security management of the airport, including the implementation and maintenance of access control systems.

The Airport Security Unit (ASU) or Airport Security Group (ASG/APSU) personnel are responsible for physically enforcing the access control procedures established by the Airport Operator in accordance with BCAS regulations.

Join Our Telegram Channel