UPSC CISF-AC-EXE Archives

31. In fieldcraft, distance is underestimated when 1. the light is brigh

In fieldcraft, distance is underestimated when

1. the light is bright
2. the object is large in relation to its surroundings
3. there is compressed/low-lying ground between the observer and the object
4. looking uphill

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1, 2 and 3 only

3 and 4 only

1, 2 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

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UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2024

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The correct answer is D because all the conditions listed in the statements contribute to the underestimation of distance in fieldcraft.

– Bright light causes objects to appear closer than they are, leading to underestimation.
– A large object appears closer, especially when there are fewer reference points or its size is disproportionate to typical objects in the environment.
– Compressed or low-lying ground between the observer and the object removes visual references, making the object seem closer.
– Looking uphill makes distances appear shorter due to the foreshortening effect and the effort involved in viewing upwards.

Other factors that can lead to underestimation of distance include looking across water or a valley, looking through clear air, and looking from a height. Factors that lead to overestimation include looking in poor light, looking at a small object, looking across varied ground, and looking downhill.

32. Which of the following are included in total risk management? 1. Saf

Which of the following are included in total risk management?

1. Safety
2. Fire prevention
3. Damage control
4. Insurance functions

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1, 2 and 3 only

3 and 4 only

1, 2 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

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UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2024

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The correct option is D) 1, 2, 3 and 4. Total risk management is a comprehensive process that includes identifying, assessing, controlling, and monitoring risks that could affect an organization’s ability to achieve its objectives. This encompasses a wide range of potential threats, including safety hazards, property damage (like fire), operational disruptions, and financial losses.

A holistic approach to risk management considers all potential sources of risk. Safety and fire prevention are crucial aspects of preventing incidents. Damage control deals with mitigating the impact of incidents when they occur. Insurance functions are a key financial tool for transferring the risk of loss. All these components contribute to managing the total risk exposure of an entity.

Total risk management frameworks, such as Enterprise Risk Management (ERM), aim to integrate risk assessment and management across all levels and functions of an organization. It goes beyond traditional insurable risks to include strategic, operational, financial, and compliance risks. Therefore, safety, fire prevention, damage control, and insurance are all integral parts of a comprehensive risk management strategy.

33. With reference to the CISF Act, 1968, which of the following statement

With reference to the CISF Act, 1968, which of the following statements is/are not correct?

1. Section 8 deals with the superintendence and administration of the Force.
2. The superintendence of the Force shall vest in the Central Government.
3. The command and supervision of the Force shall vest in the Director General.
4. The administration of the Force shall vest in the Inspector General.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1 and 4

2 and 4

2 and 3

1 only

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2024

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The incorrect statements are 1 and 4.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Section 8 of the CISF Act, 1968 deals with the “General power of Director-General” and vests the command, supervision, and administration of the Force in the Director General, subject to rules made by the Central Government. It doesn’t solely deal with superintendence and administration in the manner implied, and it’s not the only section dealing with these aspects (e.g., Section 4 deals with Superintendence).
Statement 4 is incorrect: The administration of the Force vests in the Director General (DG), as per Section 8, subject to the superintendence of the Central Government. The Inspector General is a subordinate rank and does not hold the ultimate administrative authority for the entire Force.
Statement 2 is correct: Section 4 of the CISF Act, 1968 states that the superintendence of the Force shall vest in the Central Government.
Statement 3 is correct: Section 8 of the CISF Act, 1968 states that the command and supervision of the Force shall vest in the Director General.

The CISF Act establishes a clear hierarchy of control: Superintendence lies with the Central Government, while Command, Supervision, and Administration of the Force are entrusted to the Director General. Subordinate officers like the Inspector General exercise powers delegated by the DG.

Understanding the specific roles and authorities defined in the founding Act of a force like CISF is crucial for comprehending its functioning and command structure. The Act details the powers, duties, and discipline of the Force and its members.

34. In the National Capital Region, on which one of the following metro ra

In the National Capital Region, on which one of the following metro rail lines is CISF cover not provided?

Blue Line

Aqua Line

Magenta Line

Airport Express Line

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2024

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The correct option is B) Aqua Line. CISF provides security cover to the Delhi Metro network operated by DMRC (Delhi Metro Rail Corporation), which includes the Blue Line, Magenta Line, and Airport Express Line. The Aqua Line connects Noida and Greater Noida and is operated by the Noida Metro Rail Corporation (NMRC). Security on the Aqua Line is handled by the Uttar Pradesh Provincial Armed Constabulary (PAC) and private security personnel, not CISF.

CISF is responsible for the security of vital installations including major metro networks in India, but their jurisdiction is tied to the operating authority (like DMRC). The Aqua Line falls under a different operating authority (NMRC) and is secured by state forces and private agencies.

CISF has been providing security to the Delhi Metro since 2007. They are responsible for access control, frisking, patrolling stations and trains, and responding to security threats across the DMRC network.

35. As per the MHA notification, which one among the following is not a

As per the MHA notification, which one among the following is not a CAPF?

SSB

NSG

Assam Rifles

SPG

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2024

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The correct option is D) SPG. As per the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) classification, the Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs) typically include the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF), Border Security Force (BSF), Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP), Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB), Central Industrial Security Force (CISF), and Assam Rifles. The Special Protection Group (SPG) is a separate, highly specialized force dedicated to VVIP protection and is not categorized as a CAPF.

CAPFs are a group of paramilitary forces under the MHA with diverse roles like border guarding, internal security, counter-insurgency, and critical infrastructure security. NSG is a specialized counter-terrorism unit under MHA, sometimes listed alongside CAPFs, but SPG is generally treated as distinct due to its specific VVIP protection mandate.

SSB is a border guarding force. NSG is a counter-terrorism force. Assam Rifles is a border guarding and counter-insurgency force, with unique operational control by the Army. SPG’s sole mandate is the proximate security of the Prime Minister and their immediate family.

36. Vitally confidential documents passing through the post should be encl

Vitally confidential documents passing through the post should be enclosed in an envelope addressed to the intended recipient, and they should be

marked as strictly personal (by name)
marked as strictly private
marked as restricted
put into another envelope

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1, 2 and 4

2, 3 and 4

1, 2 and 3

1 and 4 only

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2024

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The correct answer is A) 1, 2 and 4. Handling vitally confidential documents passing through the post requires multiple security layers. Marking as “strictly personal (by name)” and “strictly private” ensures that the mail is handled and opened only by the intended recipient. Putting the confidential document into *another* envelope (double enveloping) hides the sensitive markings, the recipient’s name (on the inner envelope), and the nature of the contents from postal handlers. While “restricted” (3) is a formal security classification mark, 1, 2, and 4 represent standard best practices for handling vitally confidential mail to a named individual, whether formally classified or just highly sensitive business/personal information.

Key practices for sending confidential mail include recipient-specific markings (1, 2) and physical concealment/protection (4 – double envelope) to prevent unauthorized access or disclosure during transit.

Formal security classification markings like “Restricted”, “Confidential”, “Secret”, “Top Secret” are used for government or classified information. While “vitally confidential” documents might fall under such classifications, the practices listed in 1, 2, and 4 are universally applicable for ensuring confidentiality of sensitive mail regardless of formal classification level. Using a double envelope is a fundamental physical security measure.

37. The Police (Incitement to Disaffection) Act, 1922 shall apply to membe

The Police (Incitement to Disaffection) Act, 1922 shall apply to members of the CISF as it applies to members of a Police Force. Which Section of the CISF Act, 1968 says this?

Section 18

Section 19

Section 20

Section 21

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UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2024

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The correct option is B) Section 19. Section 19 of the Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968 specifically states that the Police (Incitement to Disaffection) Act, 1922 (Act 22 of 1922) and section 3 of the Police Act, 1850 (Act 18 of 1850) shall apply to members of the Force as they apply to members of a police force.

This section legally binds CISF members under the purview of the Police (Incitement to Disaffection) Act, 1922, which prohibits activities that cause disaffection among police personnel.

Section 18 of the CISF Act deals with punishment for certain offences. Section 20 deals with the power to arrest without warrant. Section 21 deals with the power to use arms. Section 19 is the specific provision that applies the 1922 Act to CISF.

38. Which one of the following statements with regard to carrying power ba

Which one of the following statements with regard to carrying power banks for mobile phones and dry cells in flight is correct?

Both are allowed in cabin baggage.

Dry cell is allowed in cabin baggage.

Power bank is allowed in cabin baggage.

Both are allowed in registered baggage.

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UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2024

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The correct option is C) Power bank is allowed in cabin baggage. Aviation security rules, particularly concerning lithium batteries found in power banks, strictly require them to be carried in cabin baggage (hand luggage) and explicitly prohibit them from being placed in checked baggage (registered baggage) due to the risk of fire. Dry cells (like AA/AAA alkaline batteries) are generally allowed in both cabin and checked baggage, but specific rules may apply to quantity.

The key rule being tested here is the mandatory carriage of lithium battery-based devices like power banks in cabin baggage. This rule is based on safety concerns related to the potential for thermal runaway in lithium batteries.

While dry cells (which are usually alkaline or zinc-carbon based) are less restricted than lithium batteries, power banks with lithium-ion batteries pose a greater fire risk if short-circuited and must be kept in the cabin where any incident can be immediately addressed. Passengers are often advised to carry power banks within specified capacity limits (usually up to 100 Wh without airline approval, and between 100-160 Wh with approval).

39. Sky Marshals are deployed to prevent hijacking. In India, they are rec

Sky Marshals are deployed to prevent hijacking. In India, they are recruited from

Delhi Police

NSG

SPG

CISF

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2024

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The correct option is B) NSG. In India, Sky Marshals, who are deployed on flights to prevent hijacking, are personnel drawn primarily from the National Security Guard (NSG).

The NSG is India’s premier counter-terrorism force and is highly trained in various specialized operations, including anti-hijacking.

Delhi Police is a state police force responsible for law and order in Delhi. SPG is responsible for the security of the Prime Minister and immediate family. CISF provides security to industrial undertakings, airports, and other vital installations, but specialized anti-hijacking operations on board aircraft are within the NSG’s domain.

40. The illegal and unethical theft of business secrets for use by a compe

The illegal and unethical theft of business secrets for use by a competitor to achieve a competitive advantage is known as

sabotage

subversion

industrial espionage

counter-intelligence

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2024

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The correct option is C) industrial espionage. Industrial espionage is specifically defined as the illegal and unethical theft of business secrets, proprietary information, or trade secrets for use by a competitor to gain a competitive advantage.

The definition provided in the question precisely matches that of industrial espionage. It involves spying or clandestine methods to obtain sensitive business information.

Sabotage refers to deliberate destruction or obstruction. Subversion involves undermining the authority or power of a system or institution. Counter-intelligence refers to activities designed to prevent hostile intelligence efforts against one’s own organization or country. None of these accurately describe the theft of business secrets for competitive gain.