UPSC CISF-AC-EXE

31. Which of the following statements is/are correct ? The Employees’ Prov

Which of the following statements is/are correct ? The Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952 is generally applicable to every establishment :

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  • 1. which deposits GST of more than ₹ 50,000 per year.
  • 2. employing twenty or more persons.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

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1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
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The correct answer is (B) 2 only.
The Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952 is generally applicable to any establishment employing twenty or more persons. This is the primary threshold for coverage under the Act, as specified in Section 1(3). The applicability is based on the number of employees, not on tax parameters like GST deposits.
While the Act initially applied mainly to factories and specific scheduled industries, its coverage has been extended over time to various other establishments employing the minimum number of persons. GST deposition is a tax compliance requirement and is not a criterion for the applicability of the EPF Act.

32. While dealing with complaints of violation of human rights by members

While dealing with complaints of violation of human rights by members of the armed forces, the National Human Rights Commission shall adopt which of the following procedures ?

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  • 1. It may, either on its own motion or on receipt of a petition, seek a report from the Central Government.
  • 2. After the receipt of the report, it may proceed with complaints and make its recommendations to that Government.
  • 3. The Central Government shall inform the Commission of the action taken on the recommendation within three months or within the time extended by the Commission.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1 only
1 and 2 only
1, 2 and 3
2 and 3 only
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The correct answer is (C) 1, 2 and 3.
Section 21 of The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, specifically outlines the procedure to be followed by the National Human Rights Commission when dealing with complaints regarding the violation of human rights by members of the armed forces. All three steps listed in the question are part of this procedure: seeking a report from the Central Government (either on its own motion or on a petition), making recommendations to the Central Government after receiving the report, and the Central Government being required to inform the Commission of the action taken on the recommendations within a specified timeframe (usually three months or extended time).
Unlike inquiries into complaints against civilian authorities, where the Commission has powers of a civil court, its jurisdiction over complaints against the armed forces is more restricted. It primarily functions in a recommendatory capacity after seeking a report from the Central Government. This special procedure reflects the distinct nature of the armed forces.

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33. The National Human Rights Commission shall, while inquiring into the c

The National Human Rights Commission shall, while inquiring into the complaints for violation of human rights, have all powers of :

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a High Court.
a Civil Court only.
a Criminal Court only.
both Civil and Criminal Courts.
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The correct answer is (B) a Civil Court only.
Section 13 of The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, grants the National Human Rights Commission, while inquiring into complaints of violation of human rights, all the powers of a civil court trying a suit under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. These powers include summoning witnesses, requiring discovery and production of documents, receiving evidence on affidavits, requisitioning public records, and issuing commissions for the examination of witnesses or documents.
The NHRC functions as an investigative body and a quasi-judicial authority in matters of human rights violations. It does not have the powers of a criminal court, such as the power to issue arrest warrants or pass punitive judgments in criminal matters. Its role is recommendatory regarding prosecution or other actions in case of violations, based on its inquiry.

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34. The Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission is appointed b

The Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission is appointed by the :

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President of India.
Prime Minister of India.
Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India.
Minister-in-charge of the Ministry of Home Affairs.
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The correct answer is (A) President of India.
The Chairperson and Members of the National Human Rights Commission are appointed by the President of India. This appointment is made based on the recommendations of a committee comprising the Prime Minister as the Chairperson, the Speaker of the House of the People, the Minister in-charge of the Ministry of Home Affairs, the Leader of the Opposition in the House of the People, the Leader of the Opposition in the Council of States, and such other Member as may be nominated by the President.
While the Prime Minister chairs the recommendation committee, the formal appointment is made by the President, who is the head of the state. This multi-member committee structure aims to ensure transparency and impartiality in the appointment process for such a crucial body.

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35. In India, for better protection of human rights, the National Human Ri

In India, for better protection of human rights, the National Human Rights Commission, State Human Rights Commissions and Human Rights Courts are constituted under :

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The Human Rights Act, 1988.
The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955.
The International Bill of Human Rights, 1948.
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The correct answer is (B) The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
In India, the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC), State Human Rights Commissions (SHRCs), and Human Rights Courts are constituted under the provisions of The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. This Act was enacted to provide for the constitution of these bodies for better protection of human rights.
The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955, is a different law that deals with the punishment for the preaching and practice of untouchability and for the enforcement of any disability arising therefrom. The International Bill of Human Rights is a set of international documents and does not directly govern the establishment of domestic human rights institutions in India, although the Act of 1993 is informed by India’s international human rights obligations.

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36. The International Bill of Human Rights consists of the following excep

The International Bill of Human Rights consists of the following except the :

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Universal Declaration of Human Rights.
International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights.
International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights.
International Court of Justice.
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The correct answer is (D) International Court of Justice.
The International Bill of Human Rights consists of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR), the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR), and the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (ICESCR), along with their optional protocols. The International Court of Justice (ICJ) is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations, responsible for settling legal disputes between states and giving advisory opinions, but it is not one of the constituent texts of the International Bill of Human Rights.
The three components of the International Bill of Human Rights collectively establish a comprehensive set of civil, political, economic, social, and cultural rights. The UDHR provides aspirational goals, while the ICCPR and ICESCR are binding treaties for signatory states. The ICJ plays a role in international law, but it is a judicial body separate from the core human rights instruments themselves.

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37. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted in :

The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted in :

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1947
1948
1949
1950
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The correct answer is (B) 1948.
The Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly in Paris on 10 December 1948. This date is celebrated annually as Human Rights Day.
The UDHR was a response to the atrocities of World War II and represented the first global expression of rights to which all human beings are inherently entitled. Although not a treaty, it has become a foundational document in international human rights law and has inspired many subsequent international human rights treaties and national constitutions.

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38. A person shall be punishable with rigorous imprisonment for a term whi

A person shall be punishable with rigorous imprisonment for a term which may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable for a fine, if the person :

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commits theft, having made preparations for causing death or hurt to any person in order to committing of such theft.
causes death of any person while committing theft.
causes grievous hurt to any person while committing theft.
causes simple hurt to any person while committing theft.
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The correct answer is (A) commits theft, having made preparations for causing death or hurt to any person in order to committing of such theft.
Section 382 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) deals with theft after preparation for causing death, hurt, or restraint in order to commit theft. The punishment prescribed for this offence is rigorous imprisonment for a term which may extend to ten years and also a fine. This precisely matches the description and punishment mentioned in the question.
Options B, C, and D relate to causing death or hurt *while* committing theft, which would typically fall under more severe offences like robbery (Sections 390-392 IPC), dacoity (Sections 391, 395 IPC), robbery or dacoity with attempt to cause death or grievous hurt (Sections 397, 398 IPC), or even culpable homicide/murder depending on the circumstances and intent. These offences often carry higher minimum or maximum sentences than simple theft with preparation for hurt. Section 382 specifically addresses the preparation *before* or *during* the commission of theft to facilitate the theft by causing death, hurt, or restraint.

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39. ‘A’ is having joint property with ‘Z’ in a horse. ‘A’ shoots the horse

‘A’ is having joint property with ‘Z’ in a horse. ‘A’ shoots the horse with the intention to cause wrongful loss to ‘Z’. ‘A’ has committed which one of the following offences ?

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Breach of trust
Trespass of property
Mischief
Criminal misappropriation
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The correct answer is (C) Mischief.
The act of damaging property with the intention to cause wrongful loss to another person constitutes the offence of mischief under Section 425 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC). Even if the property is jointly owned, causing damage to it with the intent to cause loss to the co-owner falls within the definition of mischief.
Section 425 IPC defines mischief as “Whoever with intent to cause, or knowing that he is likely to cause, wrongful loss or damage to any person, causes the destruction of any property, or any such change in any property or in the situation thereof as destroys or diminishes its value or utility, or affects it injuriously, commits ‘mischief’.” The fact that the property is jointly owned does not exempt a co-owner from committing mischief if their actions cause wrongful loss or damage to the other co-owner’s interest.

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40. Whoever voluntarily assists in concealing or disposing of property whi

Whoever voluntarily assists in concealing or disposing of property which he knows to be stolen, shall :

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not be liable for any offence under the Indian Penal Code, 1860.
be punished with simple imprisonment, which may extend to three years or with fine.
be punished with imprisonment of either description which may extend to three years or with fine or with both.
be punished with simple imprisonment, which may extend to five years or with fine.
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Whoever voluntarily assists in concealing or disposing of property which he knows to be stolen, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description which may extend to three years or with fine or with both.
– This act is defined as an offence under Section 414 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, which deals with assisting in the concealment of stolen property.
– The section specifies the punishment for this offence.
– The maximum term of imprisonment is three years.
– The imprisonment can be of ‘either description’ (simple or rigorous).
– Fine or both imprisonment and fine can also be imposed.
– Section 410 defines ‘stolen property’. Section 411 deals with dishonestly receiving stolen property. Section 414 covers assisting in its concealment or disposal.

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