UPSC CISF-AC-EXE

31. An order of seizure or attachment of any property, issued by an office

An order of seizure or attachment of any property, issued by an officer conducting an inquiry or investigation under Section 105D of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, must be confirmed by the Court within a period of

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30 days of its being made
45 days of its being made
60 days of its being made
90 days of its being made
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The correct answer is A) 30 days of its being made.
Section 105D of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, deals with the power to attach property. It states that an order of seizure or attachment made by an officer under this section “shall not remain in force for more than thirty days from the date on which it is made” unless it is confirmed by the Court.
Section 105D is part of Chapter VII-A of the CrPC, which deals with mutual assistance in certain matters between the courts in India and the courts in contracting states. This specific provision allows an officer conducting an inquiry or investigation to make a provisional order of seizure or attachment, which then requires court confirmation for continuation beyond 30 days.

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32. Which one of following is not a Bomb Detection/Disposal Equipment ?

Which one of following is not a Bomb Detection/Disposal Equipment ?

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Non-Linear Junction Detector (NLJD)
Threat Containment Vehicle (TCV)
Bomb Blanket
Buried Cable
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The correct answer is D) Buried Cable.
Bomb detection and disposal equipment includes specialized tools and vehicles designed to locate, identify, contain, or neutralize explosive devices. Non-Linear Junction Detectors (NLJD) are used to find electronic components in devices like IEDs. Threat Containment Vehicles (TCV) are used to safely transport explosive threats. Bomb Blankets are used to protect people and property from the effects of an explosion. A buried cable, while potentially being related to infrastructure or possibly a component of an IED, is not a standard piece of bomb detection/disposal equipment itself.
Buried cables typically refer to utility lines (power, communication) or potentially perimeter security sensors (like seismic or magnetic intrusion detection systems). They are not tools used *by* bomb disposal personnel for detection or disposal operations.

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33. What is a fire triangle ?

What is a fire triangle ?

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Combination of Oxygen, Fuel and Heat
Combination of Heat, Gas and CO₂
Combination of Fuel, CO₂ and Heat
None of the above
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The correct answer is A) Combination of Oxygen, Fuel and Heat.
The fire triangle is a simple model illustrating the three elements necessary for most fires to ignite and continue to burn: Fuel (something to burn), Oxygen (a supply of oxidizer, usually air), and Heat (sufficient to raise the fuel to its ignition temperature). Removing any one of these elements can extinguish the fire.
A more complex model, the fire tetrahedron, adds a fourth element: a chemical chain reaction. This is particularly relevant for understanding how certain extinguishing agents (like halons) work by interrupting this reaction. However, the fundamental fire triangle remains a widely used and accurate model for basic understanding.

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34. What is a Drone ?

What is a Drone ?

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It is a type of missile launcher.
It is a computer virus.
It is an unmanned aerial vehicle that can navigate autonomously.
It is a type of inflated boat to rescue marooned people.
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The correct answer is C) It is an unmanned aerial vehicle that can navigate autonomously.
A drone, in its most common modern usage, refers to an unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV). These aircraft can be controlled remotely by a human operator or can fly autonomously using pre-programmed flight plans or more complex dynamic automation systems.
While the term “drone” was initially used for military target practice aircraft, it now encompasses a wide range of UAVs used for various purposes including surveillance, photography, delivery, reconnaissance, and military operations. Options A, B, and D describe completely different things (missile launcher, computer virus, rescue boat).

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35. In a highly sensitive industrial undertaking, for ensuring optimum lev

In a highly sensitive industrial undertaking, for ensuring optimum level of security, the number of entry/exit gates should be

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as many as possible
equal for male and female visitors
barest minimum
at least one gate in every 500 metres of the boundary wall
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The correct answer is C) barest minimum.
In a highly sensitive industrial undertaking, a key principle of physical security is to minimize potential points of entry and exit. Fewer gates make it easier to control, monitor, and screen people and vehicles entering and leaving the premises, thereby enhancing overall security and reducing vulnerabilities. While the number must be sufficient for operational needs (emergency exits, logistics), it should be the absolute minimum necessary to maintain strict control.
Having “as many as possible” or gates based on arbitrary criteria like distance along a wall without considering security risks increases the complexity and cost of monitoring and staffing, making the facility more vulnerable to unauthorized access. Segregating gates for different purposes (e.g., personnel, vehicles, emergency) is common, but the total number should still be minimized for sensitive sites.

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36. What does COSCA stand for ?

What does COSCA stand for ?

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Committee on Security of Commercial Aviation
Committee on Security of Civil Aviation
Commissioner of Security of Civil Aviation
Commissioner of Security of Commercial Aviation
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The correct answer is C) Commissioner of Security of Civil Aviation.
COSCA stood for the Commissioner of Security of Civil Aviation. This was the title of the head of the Bureau of Civil Aviation Security (BCAS) in India for a period. The BCAS is the regulatory body for civil aviation security in India.
The designation of the head of BCAS has changed over time. Currently, the head is designated as the Director General (DG), BCAS. However, in the past, the head was indeed referred to as the Commissioner of Security of Civil Aviation (COSCA).

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37. In case of fire due to electric short circuit, which one of the follow

In case of fire due to electric short circuit, which one of the following types of fire extinguishers is used ?

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Foam extinguisher
Dry chemical powder extinguisher
Pressurized water extinguisher
None of the above
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The correct answer is B) Dry chemical powder extinguisher.
Fires involving electrical equipment (often classified as Class E or Class C fires) require an extinguishing agent that is non-conductive. Water-based extinguishers (like pressurized water or foam, which is largely water) are conductive and can pose a severe electrocution risk to the user when used on electrical fires. Dry chemical powder extinguishers (like ABC powder) use fine powder that smothers the fire and also works on Class A, B, and C fires, making them suitable and common for electrical fires.
Other suitable extinguishing agents for electrical fires include Carbon Dioxide (CO₂) extinguishers and Halon or Halocarbon agents (though some are restricted due to environmental concerns). The classification of fires (A, B, C, D, K, or E) helps determine the appropriate extinguishing agent. Electrical fires are commonly referred to as Class C in the US and Class E in Europe/Australia, referring to energized electrical equipment.

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38. As per the provisions of the Central Industrial Security Force Act, wh

As per the provisions of the Central Industrial Security Force Act, which one of the following statements is correct ?

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An enrolled member of the Central Industrial Security Force can continue to be a member of the political association he had joined before becoming a member of the Force without any permission.
An enrolled member of the Force needs previous written sanction of the prescribed authority for joining a religious organization.
An enrolled member of the Force can publish a book on the scientific dimension of cyber warfare without previous written sanction of the prescribed authority.
While on leave, an enrolled member of the Force can be present in a political demonstration against the perceived violation of human rights by the security forces, provided he/she does not participate in it.
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While the CISF (Members of Force) Rules, 2001 generally exempt “purely” religious organizations from the requirement of previous sanction for membership (Rule 18(1)), Rule 18(3) states that the Central Government’s decision is final on whether an organization is “purely” religious. This implies that for religious organizations deemed *not* purely religious (e.g., having political or activist affiliations), previous sanction would be required. Therefore, it is correct that for *some* religious organizations (those not deemed purely religious), sanction is needed.
CISF members face restrictions on joining certain associations, including potentially religious ones not deemed “purely” religious by the government.
Options A, C, and D describe activities that are clearly restricted or prohibited for members of uniformed forces as per the CISF Rules: continued membership in political associations (Rule 18(2)), publishing a book without sanction (Rule 19), and attending political demonstrations (Rule 18(1)). This makes B the most plausible correct statement, based on the potential requirement for sanction for certain types of religious organizations as determined by the government.

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39. Which one of the following statements is correct ?

Which one of the following statements is correct ?

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The disciplinary powers of the supervisory officers of the Central Industrial Security Force to dismiss or remove members of the Force are exempt from the provisions of Article 311 of the Constitution of India.
'Drill', 'extra guard', and 'fatigue' are legitimate punishments that can be awarded to an enrolled member of the Central Industrial Security Force.
A member of the Central Industrial Security Force who has been awarded a punishment can appeal against it but he/she cannot prefer a revision petition against an order passed in appeal.
The only remedy against an order passed in appeal against a penalty imposed by a competent disciplinary authority is to approach the Central Administrative Tribunal.
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As per the Central Industrial Security Force Act and Rules, disciplinary punishments can be awarded to enrolled members. Minor punishments listed often include duties like ‘Drill’, ‘extra guard’, and ‘fatigue duty’. These are considered legitimate disciplinary measures within the force.
Minor punishments like extra drill, guard, or fatigue are standard in uniformed forces.
Article 311 of the Constitution provides safeguards for civil servants but does not grant complete exemption from disciplinary action for members of uniformed forces (A). Members typically have rights to appeal and potentially seek revision against punishment orders (C is likely incorrect). While the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) is an avenue for redressal, it might not be the *only* remedy (D is likely incorrect).

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40. Which one of the following statements is correct ?

Which one of the following statements is correct ?

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The Director General of the Central Industrial Security Force may direct the members of his Force to provide technical consultancy services relating to security to an industrial establishment in the private sector, on a request received in this behalf from the Managing Director concerned.
The Director General of the Central Industrial Security Force may direct the members of his Force to provide technical consultancy services relating to security to an industrial establishment in the private sector only if such establishment is executing a government contract.
The Director General of the Central Industrial Security Force may allow the members of the Force to provide technical consultancy services relating to security to an industrial establishment in the private sector only in their individual capacities.
Technical consultancy services can be rendered by the Central Industrial Security Force only when it has idle capacity.
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The Central Industrial Security Force provides professional security consultancy services to various entities, including those in the private sector, upon request. The Director General is authorized to direct members of the Force to provide such services.
CISF offers security consultancy services to private sector establishments.
This is a specialized wing of CISF offering expertise in security audits, risk assessments, and designing security systems. It is offered to both public and private sector undertakings and is not limited to those executing government contracts (B), or performed in individual capacities (C), or solely when there is idle capacity (D is not the formal basis).

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