UPSC CISF-AC-EXE Archives

21. What is the minimum number of escort(s) required for a dangerous priso

What is the minimum number of escort(s) required for a dangerous prisoner on board an aeroplane ?

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While specific regulations can vary, a common standard or guideline for transporting a dangerous prisoner by air often mandates a minimum of two escorts.

– Security protocols for transporting dangerous or high-risk prisoners are strict due to the potential threat posed during transit.
– A single escort would be insufficient for controlling a dangerous individual, especially in the confined and potentially disruptive environment of an aircraft.
– While more escorts might be required depending on the specific risk assessment, two escorts provide a basic level of security and control, allowing for redundancy and mutual support.

Specific aviation security regulations (e.g., ICAO guidelines, national civil aviation security rules, or prison department protocols) provide detailed requirements for escort ratios based on prisoner classification, flight duration, and other risk factors. A minimum of two escorts for a dangerous prisoner is a commonly cited minimum standard in such guidelines.

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22. Which one of the following aims at correcting regional imbalances in t

Which one of the following aims at correcting regional imbalances in the availability of affordable and reliable healthcare services by augmenting medical education ?

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Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana

Swachh Swasth Sarvatra

Ayushman Bharat

Rashtriya Arogya Nidhi

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The Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana (PMSSY) aims at correcting regional imbalances in healthcare by augmenting medical education and infrastructure.

– PMSSY, launched in 2003, focuses on establishing AIIMS-like institutions in underserved regions and upgrading existing Government Medical Colleges. This directly addresses the stated aim of correcting regional imbalances and augmenting medical education.
– Swachh Swasth Sarvatra is related to sanitation and health in ODF areas.
– Ayushman Bharat is a broader scheme covering health insurance and wellness centres.
– Rashtriya Arogya Nidhi provides financial aid for specific treatments to the poor.

PMSSY is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme that aims to create a robust tertiary healthcare system and improve the quality and accessibility of medical education across India, with a specific focus on regions lacking adequate facilities.

23. Which one of the following is not a Fundamental Duty of the Indian c

Which one of the following is *not* a Fundamental Duty of the Indian citizens ?

To respect the National flag and the National anthem

To defend the country

To safeguard all property

To provide opportunities for education to one's own child between the age of six and fourteen years

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The Fundamental Duty listed in Article 51A(i) is “to safeguard public property and to abjure violence,” not to safeguard all property (which would include private property).

– Fundamental Duties are enshrined in Part IVA of the Constitution under Article 51A.
– Option A is a Fundamental Duty (51A(a)).
– Option B is a Fundamental Duty (51A(d)).
– Option D is a Fundamental Duty (51A(k), added by 86th Amendment).
– Option C is incorrect because it refers to safeguarding “all property” instead of specifically “public property”.

Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee. They are not legally enforceable in the same way as Fundamental Rights but guide citizens’ conduct and the state’s actions.

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24. Which of the following Commissions was set up to recommend changes in

Which of the following Commissions was set up to recommend changes in the Centre-State relations ?

Verma Commission

U.C. Banerji Commission

Kothari Commission

Sarkaria Commission

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The Sarkaria Commission was specifically set up to examine and recommend changes in Centre-State relations in India.

– The Sarkaria Commission was established in 1983 by the Central Government under the chairmanship of Justice R.S. Sarkaria.
– Its mandate was to review the working of the existing arrangements between the Union and States and recommend appropriate changes within the constitutional framework.
– The Verma Commission dealt with identifying legal provisions for enforcing Fundamental Duties.
– The U.C. Banerji Commission investigated the Godhra train burning incident.
– The Kothari Commission (National Education Commission) dealt with educational sector reforms.

The recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission are a significant reference point for understanding the complexities of federalism in India and have influenced subsequent policy debates and reforms regarding Centre-State relations.

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25. Which one of the following is not a duty of the Comptroller and Audi

Which one of the following is *not* a duty of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India ?

To audit and report on all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India of each State and Union Territory that has a Legislative Assembly

To audit and report on all expenditure from the Contingency Funds and Public Accounts of the Union and the States

To audit and report on all trading, manufacturing, and profit and loss accounts kept by any Department and/or private enterprises

To audit and report on the receipts and expenditure of all bodies and authorities substantially financed from the Union or State revenues

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Auditing and reporting on all trading, manufacturing, and profit and loss accounts kept by private enterprises is not a general duty of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India.

– The CAG’s primary role is to audit the accounts of the Union and State governments and public sector undertakings.
– Duties A, B, and D are explicitly listed among the CAG’s responsibilities under the Comptroller and Auditor-General’s (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971. This includes auditing government expenditure from various funds, and the accounts of bodies substantially financed by government revenues.
– The CAG audits government companies (where the government holds a significant stake), but does not generally audit purely private enterprises unless they receive substantial government funding (covered under D). Option C states auditing “any… private enterprises” without qualification, which is incorrect as a general duty.

The CAG is the guardian of the public purse and plays a crucial role in ensuring accountability of the executive to Parliament/State Legislatures by auditing government accounts and reporting on financial propriety.

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26. Which of the following best describes a remedy where a person can be c

Which of the following best describes a remedy where a person can be commanded to perform some public duty which s/he has refused to perform ?

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Mandamus

Prohibition

Certiorari

Quo Warranto

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Mandamus is the writ that commands a public official or body to perform a public duty they are legally required to perform but have refused.

– Mandamus (meaning ‘we command’) is a judicial remedy in the form of an order from a superior court to any government subordinate court, corporation, or public authority to do some specific act which that body is obliged under law to do.
– Prohibition prevents a lower court/tribunal from exceeding jurisdiction.
– Certiorari quashes an order or transfers a case from a lower court/tribunal.
– Quo Warranto questions the legality of a person’s claim to a public office.

Writs are powerful instruments for enforcing fundamental rights and ensuring administrative legality. Mandamus is particularly important for compelling public authorities to perform their statutory duties, thereby upholding the rule of law.

27. Which one of the following does not describe the procedure or substa

Which one of the following does *not* describe the procedure or substance of the amendments to the Indian Constitution ?

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The Bill to amend the Constitution has to be laid in any House of the Union Parliament.

The basic features of the Constitution cannot be amended.

In the event of a deadlock between the two Houses of the Parliament, there is no provision for a joint session.

The President cannot veto a Bill for the amendment of the Constitution.

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The statement “The basic features of the Constitution cannot be amended” describes a substantive limitation on the amending power derived from judicial interpretation, rather than a direct description of the formal amendment procedure outlined in Article 368 or the explicit substance mentioned therein.

– Article 368 of the Constitution lays down the procedure for constitutional amendment.
– Statements A, C, and D describe aspects of this formal procedure: A) Bill can be introduced in either House (Art 368(2)), C) No joint session for amendment bills (Art 108 doesn’t apply to Art 368 bills), D) President must give assent (Art 368(2) as amended by 24th Amendment).
– Statement B refers to the ‘Basic Structure’ doctrine established by the Supreme Court (Kesavananda Bharati case, 1973). While a fundamental principle governing the *power* of amendment concerning substance, it is a judicially evolved concept and not part of the explicit procedural steps or inherent substance described in the constitutional text of Article 368.

The Basic Structure doctrine is a significant limitation on Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution, ensuring that essential features remain intact. However, when asked to describe the *procedure* or *substance* within the formal framework, statements detailing the steps and requirements of Article 368 (like introduction, passage, assent) are direct descriptions, whereas the basic structure is a judicially imposed constraint on the *extent* of amendment concerning substance, not a description of the substance itself or the process to change it.

28. Arrange the following chronologically: 1. 44th Amendment Act 2. Minerv

Arrange the following chronologically:
1. 44th Amendment Act
2. Minerva Mills Case
3. Amendment to Preamble
4. Kesavananda Bharati Case
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

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4-3-1-2

4-3-2-1

3-4-1-2

2-4-3-1

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The correct chronological order is Kesavananda Bharati Case, Amendment to Preamble (42nd Amendment), 44th Amendment Act, and Minerva Mills Case.

– Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973) established the ‘Basic Structure’ doctrine.
– The 42nd Amendment Act (1976) added words ‘Socialist’, ‘Secular’, and ‘Integrity’ to the Preamble.
– The 44th Amendment Act (1978) reversed some changes made by the 42nd Amendment and removed the right to property from the list of Fundamental Rights.
– Minerva Mills Case (1980) re-affirmed the Basic Structure doctrine and struck down parts of the 42nd Amendment.

Understanding the timeline of major constitutional amendments and landmark Supreme Court judgments related to the basic structure is crucial for Indian Polity. The Kesavananda Bharati case was a pivotal moment defining the limits of Parliament’s amending power. The 42nd and 44th Amendments were significant legislative events during the Emergency and post-Emergency periods, respectively, while the Minerva Mills case further clarified the scope of the basic structure doctrine.

29. Which of the following is an incorrect procedure to impeach a Judge of

Which of the following is an incorrect procedure to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court?

A motion addressed to the President signed by at least 100 members of the Lok Sabha or 50 members of the Rajya Sabha is delivered to the Speaker or the Chairman.

The motion is to be taken up for investigation by a Committee comprising 2 Judges of the Supreme Court and a distinguished jurist.

The motion is put to vote irrespective of the outcome of the Committee's Report.

The motion needs to be passed by each House by majority of the total membership of that House and two-thirds of the members present and voting.

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The correct answer is The motion is put to vote irrespective of the outcome of the Committee’s Report.

– The procedure for impeachment of a Supreme Court Judge is governed by the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968, read with Articles 124(4) and 217 of the Constitution.
– The process involves:
– Initiation of a motion signed by required members (100 LS or 50 RS) (Option A – Correct initial step).
– Constitution of an Inquiry Committee by the Speaker/Chairman (Option B describes a committee, though its composition description is inaccurate based on the Act’s specification of one SC judge, one HC Chief Justice, and one jurist. However, the *existence* of a committee is correct).
– Investigation and Report by the Committee.
– **Crucially, if the Committee reports that the Judge is *not* guilty, the motion lapses, and no further steps are taken in either House. Only if the Committee finds the Judge guilty is the motion taken up for consideration and voting.** (Option C is incorrect).
– Passing the motion in each House by a special majority (majority of total membership and 2/3rd of members present and voting) (Option D – Correct).

– Option C describes a procedure where the outcome of the mandatory inquiry report is ignored, which directly contradicts the statutory procedure laid down in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. The report’s finding of guilt is a necessary precondition for the motion to be voted upon in the Houses.
– While Option B’s description of the committee’s composition is factually incorrect (the Act specifies one SC Judge, one HC Chief Justice, and one jurist, not two SC Judges), Option C describes a fundamental failure to follow the laid down sequence and dependency, making it the more clearly incorrect *procedural step* in the sequence.

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30. Which one of the following is a correct description of the Indian Fede

Which one of the following is a correct description of the Indian Federal System?

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Dual citizenship

States have equal representation in the Council of States

Persons belonging to the all-India services can be dismissed or removed by the States

Unlike in the USA, there is no dual system of courts

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The correct answer is Unlike in the USA, there is no dual system of courts.

– India has an integrated judicial system with the Supreme Court at the apex, followed by High Courts at the state level, and subordinate courts below them. Judgments of higher courts are binding on lower courts.
– In contrast, the USA has a dual system of courts: a federal judiciary system and separate state judicial systems, each with its own hierarchy.

– A) Dual citizenship: Incorrect. India has single citizenship.
– B) States have equal representation in the Council of States: Incorrect. Representation in the Rajya Sabha is based on population, not equal for all states.
– C) Persons belonging to the all-India services can be dismissed or removed by the States: Incorrect. Members of All India Services (like IAS, IPS) are appointed by the Union and are under the control of both Union and State governments, but disciplinary action like dismissal or removal requires Presidential approval.