UPSC CISF-AC-EXE Archives

11. Which one of the following stores the results produced by arithmetic a

Which one of the following stores the results produced by arithmetic and logic unit of a computer ?

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Instruction Register (IR)

Program Counter (PC)

Accumulator (ACC)

Memory Address Register (MAR)

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The correct answer is C) Accumulator (ACC).

The Accumulator (ACC) is a general-purpose register in a CPU that is commonly used to store the intermediate results of arithmetic and logic operations performed by the Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU). While modern architectures use multiple general-purpose registers for this role, the Accumulator was historically and conceptually the dedicated register for accumulating results from the ALU.

The Instruction Register (IR) holds the instruction being executed. The Program Counter (PC) holds the address of the next instruction. The Memory Address Register (MAR) holds the address of the memory location being accessed. The Memory Data Register (MDR) holds the data being transferred to or from memory. Only the Accumulator is specifically associated with storing ALU results directly.

12. An enrolled member of CISF aggrieved by an order made under Section 8

An enrolled member of CISF aggrieved by an order made under Section 8 of the Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968, may file an appeal against the order within

30 days.

one month.

60 days.

three months.

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The correct answer is A) 30 days.

Section 9(1) of the Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968 provides for appeals against orders made under Section 8. It states that the appeal must be filed “within such time… as may be prescribed by the Central Government”. Rule 28(2) of the Central Industrial Security Force Rules, 2001, which are the prescribed rules, explicitly states that an appeal shall be preferred within a period of “thirty days” from the date of service of the order.

The specific time limit for filing an appeal is laid down in the rules framed under the Act. The CISF Rules, 2001 are the relevant rules. Rule 28(2) is precise, specifying “thirty days”. While one month might approximate thirty days, legal timelines are usually specified in days for clarity.

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13. Section 15 A of the Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968 restri

Section 15 A of the Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968 restricts members of the force to

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1. form any association.
2. be a member of any trade union, labour union or political association.
3. be a member of any society, institution, association or organisation not recognized as the part of the force.
4. be the part of an organisation, society, institution or association which is purely social, recreational or religious in nature.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1, 2, 3 and 4

1, 2 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

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The correct answer is A) 1, 2, 3 and 4.

Section 15A of the Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968 imposes restrictions on members regarding associations, etc. It states that no member shall, without previous sanction of the Central Government or prescribed authority, “be a member of, or be associated in any way with, any trade union, labour union, political association or with any class of people or organisation, association or union, or be a member of any society, institution or association or organisation that is not recognised as part of the Force or is not of a purely social, recreational or religious nature”.

Analyzing the section:
1. “form any association”: Forming an association implies being a member or associated with it. Section 15A restricts membership/association with various types of bodies. Therefore, forming such associations without sanction is restricted.
2. “be a member of any trade union, labour union or political association”: This is explicitly restricted by Section 15A(a).
3. “be a member of any society, institution, association or organisation not recognized as the part of the force”: This is explicitly restricted by Section 15A(a).
4. “be the part of an organisation, society, institution or association which is purely social, recreational or religious in nature”: Section 15A(a) includes “or is not of a purely social, recreational or religious nature” as part of the description of restricted bodies that are “not recognised as part of the Force”. This phrasing means that even purely social, recreational, or religious bodies require prior sanction for membership, similar to unrecognized bodies. Thus, membership in these is also restricted without sanction.
All four listed activities require prior sanction and are hence restricted.

14. CISF members have power to arrest any person without warrant under

CISF members have power to arrest any person without warrant under

Section 10 of the Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968.

Section 11 of the Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968.

Section 12 of the Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968.

Section 13 of the Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968.

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The correct answer is B) Section 11 of the Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968.

Section 11 of the Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968 outlines the powers of members of the Force. Specifically, Section 11(3) grants enrolled members the power to arrest any person without warrant in certain specified circumstances, including those committing offences under the CISF Act itself or interfering with protected property. Section 11(1) also confers upon members certain powers of a police officer.

Section 10 provides protection for acts done in good faith. Section 12 deals with the power to search without warrant. Section 13 deals with power to take action against persons obstructing inquiry or search. Thus, Section 11 is the primary section empowering CISF members to make arrests, including without warrant under specific conditions mentioned within that section.

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15. Dismissal, removal, etc. of enrolled members of CISF under Section 8 o

Dismissal, removal, etc. of enrolled members of CISF under Section 8 of the Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968 is subject to

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Article 311 of the Constitution of India.

the rules framed by the Central Government under this Act.

the rules made by the State Governments.

Article 311 of the Constitution of India and such other rules as framed by the Central Government under this Act.

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The correct answer is D) Article 311 of the Constitution of India and such other rules as framed by the Central Government under this Act.

Dismissal, removal, or reduction in rank of persons holding civil posts under the Union or a State is subject to the constitutional safeguards provided in Article 311 of the Constitution of India, which ensures principles of natural justice like the right to be heard. While CISF is a force, its enrolled members are considered holders of civil posts. The Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968, in Section 8, allows for such actions by the prescribed authority, but this power must be exercised in accordance with the procedural rules framed by the Central Government under Section 22 of the Act. These rules, as well as the actions taken under them, must conform to the constitutional mandate of Article 311.

Article 311 provides protection against arbitrary dismissal, removal, or reduction in rank. The specific detailed procedure, including the types of inquiries and appeals, is laid down in the rules framed under the CISF Act by the Central Government (e.g., CISF Rules, 2001). Therefore, the process is governed by both the constitutional requirement of Article 311 and the procedural framework provided by the Central Government rules. State government rules are irrelevant as CISF is a Central force.

16. Which one of the following pairs of Section and Clause with regard to

Which one of the following pairs of Section and Clause with regard to the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is not correctly matched ?

Section 113 A : Presumption as to abetment of suicide by a married woman

Section 114 A : Presumption of Rape

Section 112 : Presumption of legitimacy of child

Section 114 : Presumption of general exceptions under IPC

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The correct answer is D) Section 114 : Presumption of general exceptions under IPC.

Section 114 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 allows the Court to presume the existence of certain facts, illustrated by common experience (e.g., a man who is in possession of stolen goods soon after the theft is either the thief or has received the goods knowing them to be stolen). It does not deal with presumptions regarding general exceptions under the Indian Penal Code (IPC), such as the presumption of innocence or the burden of proving exceptions like self-defence or unsoundness of mind, which are often governed by the general principles of criminal law and specific provisions where applicable.

The other options are correctly matched:
A) Section 113A deals with the presumption as to abetment of suicide by a married woman.
B) Section 114A deals with the presumption as to absence of consent in certain prosecutions for rape.
C) Section 112 deals with the presumption of legitimacy of a child born during lawful wedlock.

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17. When the question is whether a person has committed the dowry death of

When the question is whether a person has committed the dowry death of a woman and it is shown that before her death she was subjected to cruelty or harassment in any connection with the demand for dowry, the presumption of dowry death under Section 113 B of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 would be

conclusive proof.

presumption of law.

a non-rebuttable presumption.

conclusive proof and non-rebuttable.

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The correct answer is B) presumption of law.

Section 113B of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, relating to the presumption of dowry death, uses the phrase “shall presume”. According to Section 4 of the Act, “shall presume” means that the Court shall regard the fact as proved, unless and until it is disproved. This type of presumption is a rebuttable presumption of law. The burden is on the accused to disprove the fact presumed by the law.

The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 defines three categories of presumptions in Section 4: “may presume” (presumption of fact, rebuttable), “shall presume” (presumption of law, rebuttable), and “conclusive proof” (irrebuttable presumption of law). Section 113A (abetment of suicide by a married woman) uses “may presume” (presumption of fact), while Section 113B (dowry death) uses “shall presume” (presumption of law). Conclusive proof is used in sections like Section 112 (legitimacy of child born during wedlock). Since Section 113B allows the presumption to be “disproved”, it is rebuttable and thus not “conclusive proof” or “non-rebuttable”.

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18. “Evidence” under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 includes

“Evidence” under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 includes

oral evidence.

documentary evidence.

both oral and documentary evidence.

oral evidence based upon personal reading of documents.

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The correct answer is C) both oral and documentary evidence.

Section 3 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 defines “Evidence” as meaning and including both “oral evidence” (statements made by witnesses before the Court) and “documentary evidence” (all documents, including electronic records, produced for the inspection of the Court).

Oral evidence consists of the statements of witnesses. Documentary evidence consists of documents. The Act makes a clear distinction between these two types of evidence. The definition is exhaustive for the purpose of the Act, meaning evidence within the meaning of the Act must fall into one of these two categories. Evidence does not include things like material objects unless they are incorporated into documentary evidence or used to understand oral evidence.

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19. “A” is found dead in mysterious circumstances. The question is whether

“A” is found dead in mysterious circumstances. The question is whether the death of “A” was caused by poison or not. Relatives are claiming that the death is natural. Whose opinion would be relevant as per Section 45 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 ?

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Opinion of family members

Opinion of friends

Opinion of advocates

Opinion of experts

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Section 45 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with the opinions of experts. When the cause of death involves scientific analysis, such as determining if poison was the cause, the opinion of persons specially skilled in that science (e.g., forensic doctors, toxicologists) is considered a relevant fact by the court.

Expert opinion under Section 45 is relevant for scientific matters like determining the cause of death by poison.

Opinions of laypersons, including family members or friends, or professionals not specialized in the relevant scientific field (like advocates), are not admissible as expert opinions under Section 45 regarding the medical cause of death.

20. Content of a document under Section 61 of the Indian Evidence Act, 187

Content of a document under Section 61 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 may be proved by

primary evidence only.

secondary evidence only.

primary or secondary evidence.

oral evidence only.

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Section 61 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 explicitly states, “The contents of documents may be proved either by primary or by secondary evidence.”

Section 61 establishes that both primary and secondary evidence are admissible methods for proving the contents of a document.

Primary evidence (Section 62) is the original document itself. Secondary evidence (Section 63) includes certified copies, copies made by mechanical processes, copies made from the original, etc., and is generally admissible only under specific circumstances outlined in Section 65 when the primary evidence is unavailable. Oral evidence about the contents of a document is typically secondary evidence.

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