UPSC CISF-AC-EXE Archives

11. Which one of the following statements relating to the CISF Rules, 2001

Which one of the following statements relating to the CISF Rules, 2001, is not correct ?

A specially deserving Constable with fifteen years of service may be promoted to the rank of Head Constable on the basis of his/her service records.

A specially deserving Head Constable with twenty years of service may be promoted to the rank of Assistant Sub-Inspector on the basis of his/her service records.

A specially deserving Assistant Sub-Inspector with twenty-five years of service may be promoted to the rank of Sub-Inspector on the basis of his/her service records.

The total number of such promotions of deserving members of the Force should not exceed 10 percent of the posts which are to be filled by the method of promotion.

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UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2017

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Rule 13(3) of the CISF Rules, 2001 provides for promotion based on meritorious service for Constables, Head Constables, and Assistant Sub-Inspectors with specified years of service in the rank (15, 20, and 25 years respectively). Rule 13(3)(iv) states that “The total number of such promotions in each rank as specified in clauses (i), (ii) and (iii) shall not exceed five per cent of the posts which are to be filled by the method of promotion or five per cent of the respective strength of the rank, whichever is less.” Statement D says the limit is 10 percent, which is incorrect as per Rule 13(3)(iv) which specifies a 5 percent limit.

– CISF Rules, 2001 govern the service conditions, including promotions.
– Rule 13 provides for promotion methods.
– Rule 13(3) specifically deals with promotions based on meritorious service/long service for lower ranks.
– There is a percentage cap on such special promotions.

– Statements A, B, and C accurately reflect the service years required for consideration under the meritorious service promotion scheme for Constable, Head Constable, and Assistant Sub-Inspector respectively, as per Rule 13(3)(i), (ii), and (iii).

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12. Which of the following pair(s) of term(s) and meaning as per the provi

Which of the following pair(s) of term(s) and meaning as per the provisions of the Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923 is/are correctly matched ?

1. Seaman : Any person forming part of the crew of any ship but does not include the master of the ship.
2. Total disablement : Such disablement whether of a temporary or permanent nature as incapacitating a workman for all work which he was capable of performing at the time of the accident resulting in such disablement.
3. Employer : Any body of persons which is incorporated excluding the managing agent of the employer.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

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1 only

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

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UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2017

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Checking the definitions in the Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923 (now Employees’ Compensation Act, 1923):
1. ‘Seaman’ is defined in Section 2(1)(k) as “any person forming part of the crew of any ship, but does not include the master of the ship”. Statement 1 is correctly matched.
2. ‘Total disablement’ is defined in Section 2(1)(l) as “such disablement, whether of a temporary or permanent nature, as incapacitates a workman for all work which he was capable of performing at the time of the accident resulting in such disablement”. Statement 2 is correctly matched.
3. ‘Employer’ is defined in Section 2(1)(d) and includes any body of persons whether incorporated or not, and *includes* any managing agent of an employer. Statement 3 incorrectly states that it *excludes* the managing agent.
Therefore, only pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched.

– The definitions in the Act are crucial for understanding its scope and application.
– Specific definitions like Seaman, Total Disablement, and Employer have precise meanings in the context of the Act.

– The Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923 was renamed as the Employees’ Compensation Act, 1923 by an amendment in 2010.
– The Act provides for compensation to employees and their dependents in case of injury or death arising out of and in the course of employment.

13. Which one of the following cannot be the subject matter of theft ?

Which one of the following cannot be the subject matter of theft ?

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Human beings

Crops

Animals

Electricity

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UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2017

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The offence of theft under Section 378 of the Indian Penal Code is defined as the dishonest taking of *movable property* out of the possession of another person without that person’s consent. Human beings are not considered property under the law and cannot be the subject matter of theft. Offences related to taking or detaining persons against their will are covered under kidnapping, abduction, wrongful confinement, etc.

– Theft applies only to movable property.
– Movable property is defined in Section 22 IPC as corporeal property of every description, except land and things attached to the earth, or permanently fastened to anything which is attached to the earth.
– Explanation 1 to Section 378 clarifies that things attached to the earth, which are agreed to be severed, are deemed to be movable property for the purpose of theft as soon as they are severed. This applies to crops, trees, etc.

– Crops are movable property when severed from the land.
– Animals are movable property.
– Electricity, when abstracted or diverted dishonestly, has been held by courts to be capable of being stolen, treating it as movable property or energy.
– Human beings are not objects of ownership and therefore not property.

14. The method of recruitment, age limits and other qualifications relatin

The method of recruitment, age limits and other qualifications relating to each post in the Central Industrial Security Force are specified in which one of the following documents ?

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The Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968

The Central Industrial Security Force Rules, 2001

Recruitment Rules, as amended from time to time

Agreement to be signed by every enrolled member at the time of initial appointment

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UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2017

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While the Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968 provides the legislative framework for the force, and the CISF Rules, 2001 are framed under the Act to provide detailed service conditions, the specific methods of recruitment, age limits, educational qualifications, physical standards, etc., for each post are primarily laid down in specific Recruitment Rules framed for different ranks or groups of posts within the force. These Recruitment Rules are often amended from time to time.

– Acts provide the main legal basis.
– Rules (like CISF Rules) provide general service conditions, discipline, and broad recruitment principles.
– Recruitment Rules are the detailed documents specifying eligibility criteria, selection procedures, and methodologies for specific posts.
– An agreement at the time of appointment outlines individual terms, not general recruitment rules.

– For most government services and forces in India, specific Recruitment Rules, often called Service Rules, govern the entry qualifications and methods. These rules are framed under the relevant Act and/or the main Service Rules governing general conditions.

15. As per the provisions of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, which one of t

As per the provisions of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, which one of the following statements regarding confession to police officer due to fear of arrest of his family members is correct ?

Confession is relevant.

Confession is not relevant.

Confession is relevant but not admissible.

Confession is not relevant but admissible.

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UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2017

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Section 25 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 explicitly states that “No confession made to a police officer shall be proved as against a person accused of any offence.” Regardless of the circumstances under which the confession is made (even due to fear of family arrest, which might relate to inducement/threat under Section 24), if it is made to a police officer, it is generally not relevant and therefore not admissible in court against the accused.

– Section 25 is a strict rule based on public policy, aimed at preventing confessions being extorted by police.
– Section 26 further states that confessions made by a person in police custody are also inadmissible unless made in the immediate presence of a Magistrate.
– Section 24 deals with confessions caused by inducement, threat, or promise, making them irrelevant if the court believes the pressure was such as to render the confession involuntary. However, Sections 25 and 26 apply specifically to confessions made to or in the custody of police officers, acting as overriding prohibitions.

– There are exceptions where statements made to police leading to discovery of facts may be admissible under Section 27, but this is not a confession itself, only the part that distinctly relates to the discovered fact.
– Confessions made to persons other than police officers may be relevant, subject to conditions under Section 24 and other provisions.

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16. As per the provisions of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, which of the f

As per the provisions of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, which of the following is/are included in the meaning of ‘Fact’?

1. Any thing, state of things, or relation of things capable of being perceived by senses
2. Any mental condition of which any person is conscious

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

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1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

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UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2017

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As per Section 3 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, the term ‘Fact’ means and includes: (1) anything, state of things, or relation of things, capable of being perceived by the senses; and (2) any mental condition of which any person is conscious. Both statements provided in the question directly correspond to these two limbs of the definition.

– The definition of ‘Fact’ in the Indian Evidence Act is broad, covering both physical facts (perceptible by senses) and psychological facts (mental conditions).
– Examples of physical facts include: a man heard or saw something, certain objects are arranged in a certain order.
– Examples of psychological facts include: a man has a certain intention, a man has a certain reputation, a man holds a certain opinion.

– The Indian Evidence Act defines key terms like ‘Fact’, ‘Relevant’, ‘Fact in issue’, ‘Document’, ‘Evidence’, ‘Proved’, ‘Disproved’, and ‘Not proved’ in its interpretation clause (Section 3). Understanding these definitions is crucial for interpreting the Act.

17. ‘A’ before going on a pilgrimage entrusts to ‘B’ the key of his house

‘A’ before going on a pilgrimage entrusts to ‘B’ the key of his house to use and take care of it under a contract that it shall be returned on payment of stipulated sum when ‘A’ comes back. ‘B’ sells the furniture of ‘A’. By doing so ‘B’ has committed the offence of

Dishonest misappropriation of property

Cheating

Theft

Criminal breach of trust

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UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2017

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The act described fits the definition of Criminal Breach of Trust under Section 405 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC). ‘A’ entrusts the key (implying entrustment of control over the house and its contents for care) to ‘B’ under a contract. ‘B’, being entrusted with the property (or dominion over it), dishonestly sells ‘A’s furniture, which is a dishonest misappropriation or conversion of that property in violation of the contract and the trust placed in him.

– Criminal Breach of Trust requires: (1) Entrustment of property or dominion over property, and (2) Dishonest misappropriation, conversion, use, or disposal of that property in violation of any direction of law or contract, or willfully suffering another person to do so.
– In this case, ‘B’ was implicitly entrusted with the care and safety of the furniture within the house, which was under his control via the key. His act of selling the furniture was dishonest and in violation of the trust placed in him.

– Dishonest misappropriation (Section 403 IPC) typically applies when property is found or acquired without initial entrustment and then dishonestly converted.
– Cheating (Section 415 IPC) involves deception leading to delivery of property or alteration of conduct causing harm. While there is dishonesty, the core offence here is the misuse of entrusted property.
– Theft (Section 378 IPC) involves taking movable property out of the possession of another without consent, with dishonest intent. While B takes the furniture, his possession of the house (and implicitly its contents for care) changes the nature of the offence from simple theft to breach of trust, as he was in lawful possession/control before the dishonest act.

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18. Which of the following statements is/are correct for the commission of

Which of the following statements is/are correct for the commission of criminal breach of trust ?

1. Property is entrusted to him or he has any dominion over the property.
2. Property may be movable or immovable.
3. Offender misappropriates or converts the property for his own use.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1, 2 and 3

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

2 only

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UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2017

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The correct answer is A) 1, 2 and 3. All three statements are correct elements for the commission of criminal breach of trust as defined under Section 405 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC).

– Section 405 IPC defines criminal breach of trust. The essential elements are:
1. Entrustment of property or dominion over property (Statement 1). The offender must be entrusted with the property or have control/authority over it.
2. The property can be movable or immovable (Statement 2). The term “property” in this context is broad and includes both types.
3. Dishonest misappropriation or conversion of that property for one’s own use, or dishonest use/disposal in violation of law or contract (Statement 3). This dishonest act regarding the entrusted property is the ‘breach’.

– Without entrustment or dominion, the offence cannot be criminal breach of trust; it might be theft (Section 378 IPC) or other property offences.
– The dishonest intention to cause wrongful gain or wrongful loss is implicit in “dishonestly misappropriates or converts”.

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19. Which one of the following is not correct in respect of the offence

Which one of the following is not correct in respect of the offence of mischief ?

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Wrongful loss or damage to the property

It must be with intention to cause loss or damage only to the owner of the property

Loss or damage may be by destruction of the property

Loss or damage may be by change in the property or situation thereof as it destroys or diminishes its value or utility

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The correct answer is B) It must be with intention to cause loss or damage only to the owner of the property. This statement is not correct regarding the offence of mischief.

– As per Section 425 of the Indian Penal Code, mischief is committed when someone, with intent to cause or knowing they are likely to cause wrongful loss or damage, causes destruction or a change in property that diminishes its value or utility.
– The key part is “with intent to cause… wrongful loss or damage to the public or to any person”. This means the loss or damage can be caused to the public in general or to any individual who may or may not be the legal owner of the property. Causing damage to property in the possession of a tenant, a bailee, or someone with a temporary right can also constitute mischief if it causes them wrongful loss.

– Options A, C, and D correctly describe elements or consequences of mischief:
– A) Wrongful loss or damage to the property is the result.
– C) Loss or damage can occur through destruction of the property.
– D) Loss or damage can occur by changing the property’s situation or form, diminishing its value or utility.

20. While being deputed for natural disaster, which one of the following i

While being deputed for natural disaster, which one of the following is not the role of CISF ?

If a dead body is found, it should be handed over to the police.

If a decomposed body is found, it should be quickly disposed of.

If any ornaments, watch or any item of identification is available, it should be preserved and handed over to the police.

Continue search for the lost persons.

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UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2017

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The correct answer is B) If a decomposed body is found, it should be quickly disposed of. This is incorrect and goes against standard disaster management and humanitarian protocols.

– During natural disasters, the role of forces like CISF includes search and rescue operations and assisting the civil administration.
– Handling of dead bodies found at a disaster site involves specific procedures: recovery, documentation, preservation of potential evidence (like ornaments, identification), and handing over to designated authorities (police, medical teams, forensic experts) for identification, post-mortem (if necessary), and dignified final disposal.
– Quick disposal of a decomposed body by security forces alone is not a recognised or acceptable protocol; it requires proper handling, investigation, and coordination with medical and police authorities for identification and health safety reasons.

– Options A, C, and D represent standard and appropriate roles for a force involved in disaster relief: searching for missing persons, recovering bodies, preserving belongings for identification, and handing over bodies and evidence to police or other relevant authorities.

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