31. Which one of the following writs means ‘you may have the body’ ?

Which one of the following writs means ‘you may have the body’ ?

Habeas Corpus
Mandamus
Certiorari
Quo Warranto
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CDS-1 – 2022
The word ‘Habeas Corpus’ is a Latin term that literally translates to “You may have the body”. This writ is issued by a court to order that a person who has been arrested or imprisoned be brought before the court. It is used to test whether a person’s detention is lawful.
Habeas Corpus is a writ used to challenge unlawful detention, ensuring the person is brought before the court.
Mandamus means “We command”, used to direct a public servant to perform a duty. Certiorari means “To be certified” or “To be informed”, used by a higher court to review a lower court’s decision. Quo Warranto means “By what authority?”, used to question a person’s claim to a public office.

32. The issue, ‘whether Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code is violative

The issue, ‘whether Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code is violative of Articles 21, 14 and 15 of the Constitution of India’ was decided in which one of the following cases ?

Shreya Singhal vs. Union of India
Vishakha vs. State of Rajasthan
Shayara Bano vs. Union of India
Naz Foundation vs. Government of NCT of Delhi and others
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CDS-1 – 2022
The issue of whether Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code was violative of Articles 21, 14, and 15 of the Constitution was directly addressed by the Delhi High Court in the case of Naz Foundation vs. Government of NCT of Delhi and others in 2009. The High Court ruled that Section 377, in so far as it criminalised consensual sexual acts of adults in private, was unconstitutional and violated these fundamental rights. Although this decision was later overturned by the Supreme Court in 2013 (Suresh Kumar Koushal vs. NAZ Foundation), the Naz Foundation case was the one that first decided this specific question and held Section 377 to be violative of the mentioned articles.
The Delhi High Court in the Naz Foundation case (2009) held Section 377 IPC, to the extent it criminalized consensual same-sex acts, as violative of Articles 14, 15, and 21.
Shreya Singhal vs. Union of India dealt with Section 66A of the Information Technology Act. Vishakha vs. State of Rajasthan laid down guidelines on preventing sexual harassment at the workplace. Shayara Bano vs. Union of India dealt with the constitutionality of triple talaq. The Supreme Court finally decriminalized consensual homosexual acts in the Navtej Singh Johar vs. Union of India case in 2018, effectively affirming the principles laid down by the Delhi High Court in the Naz Foundation case.

33. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

All executive actions of the Government of India are taken in the name of the President of India.
The President of India appoints a person as Attorney General of India provided she/he is qualified to be a Judge of the Supreme Court or a High Court.
The total number of Ministers in the Council of Ministers cannot exceed ten percent of the total number of members of the House of People.
The President of India is bound to act as per the advice tendered by the Council of Ministers.
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CDS-1 – 2022
Article 74(1A), inserted by the 91st Amendment Act, 2003, states that the total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed fifteen percent of the total number of members of the House of the People (Lok Sabha). Statement C incorrectly states the limit as ten percent.
The maximum strength of the Council of Ministers in the Union is capped at fifteen percent of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.
Option A is correct as per Article 77(1). Option B is incorrect because Article 76(1) states that the President shall appoint a person who is qualified to be appointed a Judge of the *Supreme Court* as the Attorney General, not Supreme Court *or* High Court. However, Option C presents a clearer factual error in the percentage figure. Option D is correct as per Article 74(1), as amended by the 42nd and 44th Constitutional Amendment Acts, making the President bound by the advice of the Council of Ministers (with a provision for sending advice back for reconsideration once). Given that C is a clear factual error regarding a significant amendment, it is the most likely intended incorrect statement.

34. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India requi

Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India requires the Prime Minister of India to furnish information related to decisions of the Council of Ministers to the President of India?

Article 78
Article 74
Article 75
Article 81
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CDS-1 – 2022
Article 78 of the Constitution of India outlines the duties of the Prime Minister. Clause (a) of Article 78 explicitly states that it shall be the duty of the Prime Minister to communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation.
Article 78 defines the Prime Minister’s duty to inform the President about decisions of the Council of Ministers and matters of administration and legislation.
Article 74 deals with the Council of Ministers aiding and advising the President. Article 75 deals with other provisions relating to Ministers, such as appointment, term of office, salary, and collective responsibility. Article 81 deals with the composition of the House of the People (Lok Sabha).

35. According to the Constitution of India, which one of the following sta

According to the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements is not correct?

The executive powers of the Union shall be vested in the President of India.
Parliament, by law, can confer functions on authorities other than the President of India.
The President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of all Members of Parliament and all Members of all State Legislatures.
A person, having held office as the President, shall be eligible for election to that office for the second term.
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CDS-1 – 2022
Article 54 of the Constitution of India specifies the electoral college for the election of the President. It consists of (a) the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and (b) the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States. Nominated members of Parliament and members of State Legislative Councils (where they exist) are not part of the electoral college. Statement C is incorrect because it includes “all Members of Parliament and all Members of all State Legislatures”, which erroneously includes nominated members and members of Legislative Councils.
The President of India is elected by an electoral college comprising only the *elected* members of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) and the *elected* members of State Legislative Assemblies (Vidhan Sabhas).
Option A is correct as per Article 53(1), which vests the executive power of the Union in the President. Option B is correct as per Article 53(3)(b), which allows Parliament to confer functions on authorities other than the President. Option D is correct as per Article 57, which states that a person who has held office as President is eligible for re-election.

36. Which one of the following is not a resultant of the El Nino effect?

Which one of the following is not a resultant of the El Nino effect?

Distortion of equatorial atmospheric circulation.
Flow of the South-East Trade Winds towards the Indian Ocean.
Irregularities in the evaporation of sea water.
Reduction in the amount of planktons which reduces the number of fish in the sea.
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CDS-1 – 2022
El Nino is characterized by the warming of surface waters in the eastern tropical Pacific Ocean and a weakening or reversal of the trade winds in that region. This disrupts normal atmospheric circulation patterns, including the Walker Circulation. Option B states that it results in the flow of South-East Trade Winds towards the Indian Ocean, which is not a direct or characteristic result of the El Nino effect on the primary trade winds in the Pacific. While El Nino impacts global weather patterns and teleconnections can affect the Indian Ocean region and monsoon, the core effect on trade winds is their weakening in the Pacific, not a redirected flow towards the Indian Ocean.
El Nino’s primary impact is on the Pacific Ocean’s oceanographic and atmospheric conditions, specifically the weakening/reversal of trade winds and warming of the eastern Pacific, leading to a distortion of the Walker Circulation.
Option A describes the distortion of equatorial atmospheric circulation (weakening of the Walker Circulation), which is a fundamental consequence of El Nino. Option C refers to irregularities in evaporation, which naturally occur with significant changes in sea surface temperatures. Option D describes the reduction in plankton and fish due to suppressed upwelling of nutrient-rich cold water off the coast of South America, a well-known ecological impact of El Nino. Therefore, B is the statement that does not accurately describe a resultant of the El Nino effect.

37. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I (Waterfall)
A. Barkana
B. Dudhsagar
C. Duduma
D. Kiliyur
List II (State)
1. Tamil Nadu
2. Odisha
3. Karnataka
4. Goa
Code:

A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CDS-1 – 2022
The correct matching of the Waterfalls with their States is: Barkana – Karnataka, Dudhsagar – Goa, Duduma – Odisha, Kiliyur – Tamil Nadu.
– Barkana Falls is located in the Shimoga district of Karnataka. It is formed by the Seeta River.
– Dudhsagar Falls is located on the Mandovi River in Goa, on the border with Karnataka. It is often associated with Goa due to its accessibility and tourism promotion.
– Duduma Falls is located on the border of Odisha and Andhra Pradesh, formed by the Machkund River. It is often listed under Odisha.
– Kiliyur Falls is located near Yercaud in the Shevaroy Hills of Tamil Nadu.
Waterfalls are significant geographical features, often tourist attractions, and play a role in local ecosystems. Identifying waterfalls and their locations is part of geographical knowledge about India.

38. Ten Degree Channel is found between:

Ten Degree Channel is found between:

North Andaman and Middle Andaman.
South Andaman and Little Andaman.
Little Andaman and Car Nicobar.
Car Nicobar and Great Nicobar.
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CDS-1 – 2022
The Ten Degree Channel is found between Little Andaman and Car Nicobar.
The Ten Degree Channel is a strait that separates the Andaman Islands from the Nicobar Islands in the Bay of Bengal. It is located at 10 degrees North latitude, hence the name. Specifically, it lies between Little Andaman Island to the north and Car Nicobar Island to the south.
Other significant channels in the Andaman and Nicobar archipelago include the Duncan Passage (between South Andaman and Little Andaman) and the Great Channel (between Great Nicobar and Sumatra, Indonesia).

39. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :

List I
(Railway Zone)
List II
(Headquarters)
A. South-Eastern 1. Secunderabad
B. South-Central 2. Kolkata
C. South-Western 3. Bilaspur
D. South-East-Central 4. Hubli

Code :

A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CDS-1 – 2022
The correct matching of the Railway Zones with their Headquarters is: South-Eastern – Kolkata, South-Central – Secunderabad, South-Western – Hubli, South-East-Central – Bilaspur.
Indian Railways is divided into several zones, each with its own headquarters. The given options correctly match the specified zones with their respective headquarters:
– South-Eastern Railway: Kolkata (Garden Reach)
– South-Central Railway: Secunderabad
– South-Western Railway: Hubli (now Hubballi)
– South-East-Central Railway: Bilaspur
As of early 2023, Indian Railways had 18 zones and 73 divisions. The South Eastern Railway headquarters was previously in Garden Reach, Kolkata, covering a large area. The South Central Railway serves parts of Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Karnataka. The South Western Railway covers parts of Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and Tamil Nadu. The South East Central Railway is located in the Chhattisgarh region.

40. The year 1916 is important in Indian history for : 1. Lucknow Sessio

The year 1916 is important in Indian history for :

  • 1. Lucknow Session of the Congress
  • 2. Congress – League Pact
  • 3. Formation of Home Rule League

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 and 3
1, 2 and 3
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CDS-1 – 2022
The year 1916 is important in Indian history for all three listed events: the Lucknow Session of the Congress, the Congress-League Pact, and the Formation of the Home Rule Leagues.
1. Lucknow Session of the Congress: The Indian National Congress held its annual session in Lucknow in December 1916. This session was significant because it saw the reunion of the moderate and extremist factions of the Congress after their split in 1907.
2. Congress-League Pact: Signed during the Lucknow Session of 1916, this pact was an agreement between the Indian National Congress and the All-India Muslim League, according to which the Congress accepted the Muslim League’s demand for separate electorates in return for the Muslim League’s support for the Congress demand for greater self-government.
3. Formation of Home Rule Leagues: Two Home Rule Leagues were formed in 1916 to promote the demand for self-government (Home Rule) for India within the British Empire. Bal Gangadhar Tilak launched his league in April 1916, and Annie Besant launched hers in September 1916.
These events collectively mark 1916 as a crucial year in the Indian nationalist movement, indicating a new phase of political activity and strategies aimed at achieving self-rule.