UPSC CAPF Archives

31. Which of the following statements about the Bengali literary epic, Meg

Which of the following statements about the Bengali literary epic, Meghnad Badh Kabya (1861), is / are correct ?

1. It was written by Michael Madhusudan Dutta
2. It draws upon existing Hindu and Jain traditions of Ramayana
3. It was translated into Assamese and Hindi

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 and 3″ option3=”1 and 2″ option4=”1 and 3″ correct=”option4″]

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Let’s evaluate the statements about Michael Madhusudan Dutta’s *Meghnad Badh Kabya*:
1. It was written by Michael Madhusudan Dutta. This is correct. It is his magnum opus, published in 1861.
2. It draws upon existing Hindu and Jain traditions of Ramayana. This is incorrect. The epic is fundamentally based on Valmiki’s Hindu Ramayana, although Dutta reinterprets characters and events from a modern, humanist perspective, often showing sympathy for the ‘villainous’ characters like Ravana and Meghnad. It does not draw upon Jain traditions of the Ramayana, which have their own distinct narratives.
3. It was translated into Assamese and Hindi. This is correct. As a highly significant work of Bengali literature, it has been translated into several Indian languages, including Assamese and Hindi, making it accessible to a wider audience.

Based on the evaluation, statements 1 and 3 are correct, while statement 2 is incorrect.

– *Meghnad Badh Kabya* is a famous Bengali epic by Michael Madhusudan Dutta.
– It is based on the story of Ramayana but reinterprets it.
– The work has been translated into various Indian languages.

– *Meghnad Badh Kabya* is written in blank verse (unrhymed iambic pentameter), a style Dutta introduced to Bengali literature.
– The epic’s innovative style and unconventional portrayal of characters marked a significant shift in Bengali literary tradition.

32. Who among the following coined the terms ‘Demand Polity’ and ‘Command

Who among the following coined the terms ‘Demand Polity’ and ‘Command Polity’ ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Lloyd I. Rudolph and Susanne H. Rudolph” option2=”Rajni Kothari” option3=”Sudipta Kaviraj” option4=”Paul Brass” correct=”option1″]

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The terms ‘Demand Polity’ and ‘Command Polity’ were coined and extensively used by the American political scientists Lloyd I. Rudolph and Susanne Hoeber Rudolph in their studies of India. A ‘Command Polity’ describes a state apparatus primarily focused on control and extraction, characteristic of colonial or highly centralized regimes. A ‘Demand Polity’ emerges when political mobilization enables citizens to make demands on the state, characteristic of democratic systems.

– Lloyd I. Rudolph and Susanne H. Rudolph are known for coining and using the terms ‘Demand Polity’ and ‘Command Polity’.
– These terms are used in the context of analyzing political systems, particularly in developing countries like India.

– Rajni Kothari is famous for his analysis of India’s party system, particularly the ‘Congress system’, and for founding the Centre for the Study of Developing Societies (CSDS).
– Sudipta Kaviraj is known for his work on the state in India, nation-formation, and political discourse.
– Paul Brass is a leading scholar on ethnic conflict, riots, and collective violence, particularly in South Asia.

33. Who among the following divided governments into ‘Republican’, ‘Monarc

Who among the following divided governments into ‘Republican’, ‘Monarchical’ and ‘Despotic’?

[amp_mcq option1=”Aristotle” option2=”Hobbes” option3=”Montesquieu” option4=”St. Augustine” correct=”option3″]

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Charles-Louis de Secondat, Baron de La Brède et de Montesquieu, a French political philosopher, in his influential work ‘The Spirit of the Laws’ (1748), provided a classification of governments into three main types: Republics (subdivided into democracies and aristocracies), Monarchies, and Despotisms. This classification was based on the principle underlying the government (virtue for republic, honour for monarchy, fear for despotism) and the nature of rule.

– Montesquieu classified governments into Republics, Monarchies, and Despotisms in ‘The Spirit of the Laws’.
– This classification is based on the principles and nature of the respective governments.

– Aristotle’s classification was based on the number of rulers and their purpose (Monarchy/Tyranny, Aristocracy/Oligarchy, Polity/Democracy).
– Thomas Hobbes discussed the state of nature and advocated for an absolute sovereign.
– St. Augustine’s political thought was deeply integrated with his theological views, discussing the City of God versus the City of Man.

34. ‘Cut Motion’ can be introduced after the presentation of :

‘Cut Motion’ can be introduced after the presentation of :

[amp_mcq option1=”any Bill introduced in the Parliament.” option2=”the Railway and General Budgets.” option3=”any Private Member’s Bill.” option4=”a Constitution Amendment Bill.” correct=”option2″]

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‘Cut Motions’ are parliamentary devices used in the Lok Sabha during the discussion of Demands for Grants, which are part of the budgetary process. They are moved to reduce the amount of a demand for grant submitted by the government. Therefore, they can be introduced after the presentation of the Budgets (Railway and General Budgets, as the demands for grants follow).

– Cut Motions are specific to the process of scrutinizing budgetary demands for grants.
– They are discussed and moved after the Union Budget (which includes Railway and General expenditure) has been presented and the demands for grants are being debated.

– There are different types of cut motions: Policy Cut (reducing the demand to Re. 1 signifying disapproval of the policy), Economy Cut (proposing a specific reduction to effect economy), and Token Cut (reducing the demand by Rs. 100 to ventilate a specific grievance).
– Cut motions are not typically associated with the introduction of any general bill, private member’s bill, or constitution amendment bill.

35. With regard to a Constitution Amendment Bill, which one of the followi

With regard to a Constitution Amendment Bill, which one of the following statements is *not* correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can call a joint sitting of both the Houses to pass the Bill” option2=”Each House needs to pass the Bill separately by a prescribed special majority” option3=”The Bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament” option4=”The Bill can be sponsored by a Private Member” correct=”option1″]

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Statement A is incorrect. Article 368 of the Constitution lays down the procedure for passing a Constitution Amendment Bill. It requires the Bill to be passed by each House of Parliament separately by a special majority (a majority of the total membership of the House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting). There is no provision for a joint sitting of both Houses to resolve a deadlock over a Constitution Amendment Bill. Joint sittings (under Article 108) are only for ordinary bills where there is a disagreement between the two Houses.

– Constitution Amendment Bills require separate passage by each House with a special majority.
– Joint sittings are not permitted for Constitution Amendment Bills.

– Statement B is correct as per Article 368.
– Statement C is correct; a Constitution Amendment Bill can be introduced in either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha.
– Statement D is correct; a Constitution Amendment Bill can be introduced by a Minister or a Private Member (any MP who is not a Minister).

36. The amending power of the Parliament is set forth in which one of the

The amending power of the Parliament is set forth in which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Article 368″ option2=”Article 360″ option3=”Article 13(2)” option4=”Article 370″ correct=”option1″]

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Article 368 of the Constitution of India specifically deals with the Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and Procedure therefor. It outlines the process by which the Constitution can be amended, requiring specific majorities in Parliament and in some cases, ratification by State Legislatures.

– Article 368 is the primary article granting and regulating the power to amend the Constitution.
– It specifies the procedure for constitutional amendments.

– Article 360 deals with the provisions relating to Financial Emergency.
– Article 13(2) states that the State shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the rights conferred by Part III (Fundamental Rights), and any law made in contravention of this clause shall, to the extent of the contravention, be void.
– Article 370 (now largely inoperative) contained temporary provisions with respect to the State of Jammu and Kashmir.

37. The Tenth Schedule to the Constitution of India relates to :

The Tenth Schedule to the Constitution of India relates to :

[amp_mcq option1=”the provisions relating to the formation of District Councils.” option2=”the land reforms.” option3=”the States and Union Territories.” option4=”the anti-defection law.” correct=”option4″]

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The Tenth Schedule to the Constitution of India was added by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985, often referred to as the Anti-Defection Law. It lays down the grounds for disqualification of members of Parliament and State Legislatures on the basis of defection from their political party.

– The Tenth Schedule deals with anti-defection provisions.
– It was added by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985.

– Option A (District Councils): Provisions related to the administration of tribal areas, including the formation of District Councils, are primarily found in the Sixth Schedule.
– Option B (Land Reforms): Provisions related to land reforms are included in the Ninth Schedule, added by the 1st Amendment Act, 1951, to protect laws from judicial review on the ground of violation of fundamental rights.
– Option C (States and Union Territories): The First Schedule lists the States and Union Territories of India and their territories.

38. The theory of Separation of Powers is a division of powers between :

The theory of Separation of Powers is a division of powers between :

[amp_mcq option1=”Central and State Governments.” option2=”different branches of Government.” option3=”the polity and the economy.” option4=”State and local Governments.” correct=”option2″]

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The theory of Separation of Powers is a fundamental principle in political science that advocates for the division of governmental authority among different branches to prevent the concentration of power and ensure checks and balances. These branches typically include the legislative (making laws), the executive (implementing laws), and the judicial (interpreting laws).

– The core idea of Separation of Powers is to divide governmental functions among distinct entities.
– These distinct entities are traditionally identified as the legislative, executive, and judicial branches of government.

– The concept was notably articulated by Montesquieu in ‘The Spirit of the Laws’, building upon earlier ideas by Locke.
– While other options (A, C, D) represent divisions or relationships within a political system (federalism, socio-economic spheres, decentralization), they do not define the classical theory of Separation of Powers as a division *between different branches of Government*.

39. In February 2016, which one of the following countries has rejected th

In February 2016, which one of the following countries has rejected the plea of the incumbent President through a referendum to contest the election for the third term ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Brazil” option2=”Paraguay” option3=”Bolivia” option4=”Peru” correct=”option3″]

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The correct answer is Bolivia. In February 2016, Bolivian President Evo Morales sought approval through a referendum to amend the constitution to allow him to run for a fourth term. The referendum was held on February 21, 2016, and the proposal was narrowly rejected by voters.

– The question pertains to a specific political event in February 2016 involving a referendum and an incumbent president seeking to contest an election for another term.
– The referendum in Bolivia in February 2016 was indeed related to President Evo Morales seeking to remove constitutional term limits to run for re-election.

– Although the question mentions “third term”, Evo Morales had already served since 2006 and this referendum aimed to allow him to contest the 2019 election, which would have been his fourth term according to his interpretation (or third based on prior constitutional changes). The crucial detail matching the question is the rejection via referendum in Feb 2016.
– The other options were not relevant to a referendum on presidential term limits in February 2016. Brazil was dealing with impeachment proceedings against President Dilma Rousseff, Paraguay’s President Horacio Cartes later faced issues regarding re-election but not via a referendum in Feb 2016, and Peru’s President Ollanta Humala was nearing the end of his term without seeking a referendum for an extension.

40. Which one of the following States won the 61st National School Athleti

Which one of the following States won the 61st National School Athletics Championship in the year 2016 ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Punjab” option2=”Kerala” option3=”Maharashtra” option4=”Tamil Nadu” correct=”option2″]

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Kerala won the 61st National School Athletics Championship held in Kozhikode, Kerala, in 2016.

Kerala has a strong tradition in school athletics and often dominates national championships in this category.

The championship attracts young athletes from across India and serves as a significant platform for identifying budding talent in various track and field events.