UPSC CAPF Archives

21. Which one of the following is NOT true of the 10th schedule of the Con

Which one of the following is NOT true of the 10th schedule of the Constitution of India pertaining to disqualification of members of the Parliament and State legislatures ?

[amp_mcq option1=”The schedule lays down that elected members may be disqualified on the grounds of defection” option2=”Disqualification on ground of defection does not apply in cases of merger with another political party” option3=”Cases of dispute are decided by the Speaker or Chairman of the House concerned” option4=”The Supreme Court of India is the final arbiter in cases which remain unresolved” correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2019

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The statement that the Supreme Court is the final arbiter in cases which remain unresolved is not accurate. The decision on disqualification under the 10th Schedule is made by the Speaker (in Lok Sabha) or Chairman (in Rajya Sabha), and this decision is subject to judicial review by the High Courts and the Supreme Court. The Court reviews the decision of the presiding officer; it doesn’t step in to resolve cases that the Speaker/Chairman failed to resolve.

– The 10th Schedule provides for disqualification of MPs and MLAs on grounds of defection.
– Exceptions exist, such as in cases of merger of political parties under specific conditions (e.g., 2/3rd members agree).
– The authority to decide on disqualification cases rests with the Speaker of the Lok Sabha or the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha/Legislative Council.
– The decision of the presiding officer is subject to judicial review by the Supreme Court and High Courts (established in the Kihoto Hollohan case, 1993).

The 10th Schedule was added to the Constitution by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985. It aims to prevent political defections. The process involves the presiding officer of the House making the decision based on the rules framed under the schedule. While judicial review is available, the court examines the legality/constitutionality of the presiding officer’s decision rather than acting as an alternative forum to resolve the defection case itself. The phrase “cases which remain unresolved” is problematic as the Speaker/Chairman is mandated to resolve the cases.

22. Consider the following statements relating to short notice questions a

Consider the following statements relating to short notice questions asked in the Legislature :

1. These relate to matters of urgent public importance and can be asked for oral answer at a notice less than 10 days
2. Short notice questions can be admissible if the Minister concerned agrees to answer to it
3. Short notice questions are asked during question hour

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1, 2 and 3″ option2=”1 and 2 only” option3=”2 and 3 only” option4=”1 and 3 only” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2019

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Statements 1 and 2 regarding short notice questions are correct. Statement 3 is incorrect because short notice questions are not asked during the regular Question Hour but typically afterwards.

– Short notice questions deal with matters of urgent public importance.
– They can be asked with a notice period of less than ten days.
– Admissibility requires the consent of the Minister concerned.
– Short notice questions are listed separately and taken up after the Question Hour.

Question Hour is the first hour of a sitting in Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, dedicated to asking and answering questions. Questions asked during this hour usually require a minimum notice period (e.g., 10 days for starred/unstarred questions). Short notice questions are a separate category meant for urgent matters, dealt with outside the standard Question Hour slot, subject to the Minister’s agreement.

23. Which one of the following statements about the Attorney-General of In

Which one of the following statements about the Attorney-General of India is NOT correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”He shall have the right to speak in the Houses of Parliament” option2=”He shall have a right of audience in all Courts in the territory of India in the performance of his official duties” option3=”He must have the same qualifications as are required to be a Judge of the Supreme Court” option4=”He is a whole-time counsel for the Government” correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2019

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The statement that the Attorney-General of India is a whole-time counsel for the Government is incorrect. The Attorney-General is the chief legal advisor to the Union Government but is not prohibited from engaging in private legal practice, provided it does not conflict with his official duties.

– The Attorney-General is appointed by the President (Article 76).
– He has the right to speak and take part in proceedings of both Houses of Parliament and their joint sittings, but cannot vote (Article 88).
– He has the right of audience in all courts in the territory of India (Article 76(3)).
– He must be qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court (Article 76(1)).
– He holds office during the pleasure of the President (Article 76(4)).

The Attorney-General is not a member of the central cabinet. He is assisted by a Solicitor General and Additional Solicitor Generals. Unlike a whole-time counsel, he can accept private briefs, except those against the Government of India, those in which he is called upon to advise or appear against the Government of India, or those requiring him to defend a person accused of criminal prosecution without the permission of the Government of India.

24. If farmers’ loans are waived in India, how will it affect the aggregat

If farmers’ loans are waived in India, how will it affect the aggregate demand in the economy?
1. Private consumption impact via increase in private sector net wealth
2. Public sector impact via changes in government expenditure/taxes
3. Crowding-out impact via higher borrowing by State Governments
4. Crowding-in impact via higher credit availability as bank NPAs fall
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

[amp_mcq option1=”1, 2 and 3 only” option2=”1, 2, 3 and 4″ option3=”3 and 4 only” option4=”1 and 2 only” correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2018

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Farmer loan waivers affect aggregate demand through multiple channels, including increasing private consumption, impacting government finances (expenditure/taxes), and potentially leading to crowding out of private investment due to increased government borrowing. The impact on credit availability via falling NPAs (crowding-in) is less certain or potentially offset by other factors like moral hazard and fiscal strain.

– Aggregate demand (AD) is influenced by Consumption (C), Investment (I), Government Spending (G), and Net Exports (X-M).
– Loan waivers directly affect farmers’ disposable income (boosting C) and government finances (impacting G or taxes, affecting C/I).
– Increased government borrowing to fund waivers can raise interest rates, potentially reducing private investment (crowding out I).
– The impact on bank NPAs and subsequent credit availability (crowding in or out) is complex and debated, not a guaranteed positive effect.

1. **Private consumption:** Reduced debt burden increases farmers’ disposable income, leading to higher consumption (C). This directly increases aggregate demand.
2. **Public sector impact:** The cost is borne by the government (usually state governments). This requires either increased government expenditure (G) for the waiver itself or adjustments in other spending/taxation, which can impact AD components.
3. **Crowding-out:** State governments often finance waivers through borrowing. Higher government borrowing increases demand for funds, potentially raising interest rates and reducing private sector investment (I). This crowds out private investment.
4. **Crowding-in:** While NPAs might technically decrease immediately post-waiver, the fiscal cost, potential for future waivers (moral hazard), and overall risk perception can make banks cautious about lending to the agricultural sector or state governments, potentially leading to overall credit squeeze or crowding out rather than crowding in. Therefore, the positive ‘crowding-in’ effect via falling NPAs is not a universally accepted or certain outcome for aggregate demand stimulus.

25. Consider the following countries: 1. China 2. Spain 3. India 4. Russia

Consider the following countries:
1. China
2. Spain
3. India
4. Russia
Which one of the following is the correct ascending order of the above countries in terms of their share of services sector to Gross Value Added (GVA) during the period 2001-2015?

[amp_mcq option1=”1, 2, 3, 4″ option2=”1, 3, 4, 2″ option3=”4, 1, 3, 2″ option4=”1, 3, 2, 4″ correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2018

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Based on data for the period 2001-2015, the share of the services sector in Gross Value Added (GVA) for the listed countries in ascending order is typically China, followed by India, then Russia, and finally Spain having the highest share.

– Services sector share in GVA reflects the development stage and economic structure of a country.
– Developed economies like Spain usually have a very high share of services in their GVA.
– Emerging economies like China and India have significant services sectors, but China traditionally had a larger industrial base, and India’s services sector growth has been a key driver. Russia’s economy has a large resource sector, but services are also substantial.

Around 2015, the services sector share in GVA was approximately: China (~50.5%), India (~53.2%), Russia (~58.4%), and Spain (~74.4%). This confirms the ascending order: China < India < Russia < Spain, which corresponds to the numbering 1, 3, 4, 2.

26. In India, approximately what percentage of households still use firewo

In India, approximately what percentage of households still use firewood for cooking as per 2011 Census?

[amp_mcq option1=”20%” option2=”40%” option3=”50%” option4=”60%” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2018

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According to the Census of India 2011 data on households using different types of fuel for cooking, 49.0% of households primarily used firewood. This percentage is closest to 50%.

Census data provides official statistics on various aspects of household life, including fuel usage. The 2011 Census data indicated that firewood was the dominant cooking fuel for nearly half of Indian households.

Other major cooking fuels used by households in India as per the 2011 Census included LPG (28.5%), cow dung cake (8.9%), and kerosene (4.5%). The reliance on traditional biomass fuels like firewood has significant implications for health, environment, and gender equity.

27. Ashok Mehta Committee was constituted to make recommendations on which

Ashok Mehta Committee was constituted to make recommendations on which one of the following issues?

[amp_mcq option1=”Division of tax revenues between Centre and States” option2=”Panchayati Raj System” option3=”Appointment of Governors” option4=”Presidential and Vice Presidential elections” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2018

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The Ashok Mehta Committee was appointed by the Janata Government in December 1977 to examine the working of the Panchayati Raj Institutions and suggest measures for strengthening them to achieve decentralization.

The Ashok Mehta Committee is specifically known for its comprehensive review and recommendations regarding the Panchayati Raj System in India.

Various committees, such as the Finance Commissions, deal with the division of tax revenues. The Sarkaria Commission and Punchhi Commission dealt with Centre-State relations, including the appointment of Governors. Matters related to Presidential and Vice Presidential elections are handled by the Election Commission as per constitutional provisions and laws.

28. The power of the President of India to refer a matter back to the Coun

The power of the President of India to refer a matter back to the Council of Ministers for reconsideration was inserted in the Constitution by

[amp_mcq option1=”44th Amendment” option2=”42nd Amendment” option3=”43rd Amendment” option4=”35th Amendment” correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2018

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The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, made the President bound by the advice of the Council of Ministers. The 44th Amendment Act, 1978, introduced the provision that the President can require the Council of Ministers to reconsider any advice, but the President shall act in accordance with the advice tendered after such reconsideration.

The power of the President to send back advice for reconsideration was introduced by the 44th Amendment to mitigate the absolute binding nature imposed by the 42nd Amendment.

The 43rd Amendment Act, 1977, repealed some of the drastic provisions of the 42nd Amendment. The 35th Amendment Act, 1974, related to Sikkim.

29. The federal systems of India and the USA are different in all the foll

The federal systems of India and the USA are different in all the following respects, except

[amp_mcq option1=”State’s representation in the Upper House” option2=”dual citizenship” option3=”dual system of Courts” option4=”dual Government” correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2018

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Both India and the USA have a dual government system, meaning there is a government at the central/federal level and governments at the state level. This is a characteristic of a federal system and is present in both countries. Therefore, it is not a difference between the two federal systems.

A dual government system is a fundamental feature of federalism, present in both the Indian and US political structures.

A) State’s representation in the Upper House (Rajya Sabha in India, Senate in USA) is different: based on population in India, equal (two per state) in USA. B) Citizenship is different: single in India, generally dual (federal and state citizenship, and potentially citizenship of another country) in the USA. C) The judicial system is different: integrated in India, dual (separate federal and state court systems) in the USA.

30. The Buddhist text Majjhima Nikaya is in

The Buddhist text Majjhima Nikaya is in

[amp_mcq option1=”Sanskrit” option2=”Pali” option3=”Prakrit” option4=”Telugu” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2018

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Majjhima Nikaya (Collection of Middle Length Discourses) is a major collection of Buddhist scriptures included in the Sutta Pitaka, which is part of the Pali Canon (Tipitaka) of Theravada Buddhism. These texts are composed in the Pali language, which was the liturgical language of Theravada Buddhism and is based on a Middle Indo-Aryan dialect.

The Pali Canon is the standard collection of scriptures in the Theravadan Buddhist tradition, and the Sutta Pitaka, containing the Majjhima Nikaya, is written in Pali.

Many Mahayana Buddhist texts were composed in Sanskrit or Buddhist Hybrid Sanskrit. Prakrit refers to a group of Middle Indo-Aryan languages, including those used in early Jain and some Buddhist texts (other than Pali). Telugu is a Dravidian language spoken in India, unrelated to these ancient languages.