UPSC SO-Steno Archives

41. Notice of an adjournment motion shall be given by 10.00 hours on the d

Notice of an adjournment motion shall be given by 10.00 hours on the day on which the motion is proposed to be made to the Secretary-General and copies thereof shall be endorsed among others, to

the President of India

the Prime Minister

the Minister of Parliamentary Affairs

the Vice President of India

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The correct answer is C.

According to the established practice and procedure in Lok Sabha regarding Adjournment Motions (governed by Rules 56-62), the notice of an adjournment motion must be given to the Secretary-General by 10:00 hours on the day it is proposed to be moved. Copies of this notice are also required to be endorsed to the Speaker, the Minister concerned with the subject matter of the motion, and the Minister of Parliamentary Affairs. The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs is the liaison between the government and Parliament regarding the scheduling and transaction of government business, making them a necessary recipient of such notices.

An adjournment motion is an extraordinary procedure which, if admitted, leads to an adjournment of the normal business of the House to discuss a definite matter of urgent public importance. Due to its disruptive nature to the normal schedule, strict rules govern its admissibility and notice requirements. Notice is given to key parliamentary functionaries and government representatives.

42. Consider the following statements regarding the limit of number of sta

Consider the following statements regarding the limit of number of starred questions in the House of the People :

1. Not more than one question distinguished by an asterisk by the same member and not more than twenty questions in all shall be placed on the list of questions for oral answer on any one day.
2. When a question is postponed or transferred from one list of questions for oral answer to another, more than one question may stand in the name of one member and the total number of questions may exceed by such postponed or transferred question.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

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The correct answer is C.

Statement 1 is correct. Rule 33(1) of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha states: “Not more than one question distinguished by an asterisk by the same member and not more than twenty questions in all shall be placed on the list of questions for oral answer on any one day.”
Statement 2 is correct. Rule 33(2) states: “Where a question is postponed or transferred from one list of questions for oral answer to another, the question so postponed or transferred shall not be included in the quota referred to in sub-rule (1), but shall be in addition to the number of questions referred to in that sub-rule.” This means the total number of starred questions on a given day’s list can exceed twenty if postponed/transferred questions are added. It also implies a member might have more than one starred question on the list if one is a postponed/transferred question, notwithstanding the daily limit of one *original* starred question per member.

Starred questions are those for which a member desires an oral answer in the House. They are distinguished by an asterisk. Supplementary questions can be asked after the answer is given. There are limits placed on the number of starred questions per member and per day to manage the time available for the Question Hour effectively.

43. Consider the following statements : In the House of the People, the la

Consider the following statements :
In the House of the People, the last two and a half hours of a sitting on Friday shall be allotted for the transaction of private members’ business :

1. Provided that the Speaker may allot different Fridays for the disposal of different classes of such business and on Fridays so allotted for any particular class of business, business of that class shall have precedence.
2. Provided further that the Speaker may, in consultation with the Leader of the House, allot any day other than a Friday for the transaction of private members’ business.
3. Provided further that if there is no sitting of the House on a Friday, the Speaker may direct that two and a half hours on any other day in the week may be allotted for private members’ business.

Which of the above statements are correct ?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

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The correct answer is B.

Rule 26 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha governs Private Members’ Business.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Rule 26(1) Proviso states: “Provided that the Speaker may, *in consultation with the Leader of the House*, allot different Fridays for the disposal of different classes of such business and on Fridays so allotted for any particular class of business, business of that class shall have precedence.” Statement 1 omits the requirement of consultation with the Leader of the House, which is a condition for the Speaker exercising this power.
Statement 2 is correct. Rule 26(2) states: “The Speaker may, in consultation with the Leader of the House, allot any day other than a Friday for the transaction of private members’ business…”
Statement 3 is correct. Rule 26(3) states: “Provided further that if there is no sitting of the House on a Friday, the Speaker may direct that two and a half hours on any other day in the week may be allotted for private members’ business.”

Private members’ business includes Bills and Resolutions introduced by members who are not Ministers. In Lok Sabha, this business is normally transacted on the last two and a half hours of a sitting on Friday. The rules allow flexibility in timing and prioritisation under certain conditions, often requiring consultation with the Leader of the House.

44. The Speaker of the House may allot time for the discussion of the matt

The Speaker of the House may allot time for the discussion of the matters referred to in the President’s address under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India ?

Article 82(1)

Article 84(1)

Article 86(1)

Article 88(1)

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The correct answer is C.

The President’s Address to Parliament is a constitutional requirement under Article 86 and Article 87. Article 86(1) gives the President the right to address either House of Parliament or both Houses assembled together. Article 87(1) mandates a special address by the President at the commencement of the first session after each general election and the first session of each year. The discussion on the matters referred to in the President’s Address is a significant parliamentary business. While the Speaker’s power to allot time for this discussion is governed by the Rules of Procedure of the House (e.g., Rule 16 in Lok Sabha, framed under Article 118), these rules operationalize the constitutional provisions relating to the President’s Address. Among the given options, Article 86(1) is the constitutional provision directly related to the President’s right to address Parliament, which forms the basis for the subsequent discussion for which the Speaker allots time. The other articles are irrelevant to this context.

The discussion on the President’s Address takes place on a Motion of Thanks moved by a member and seconded by another. Amendments can be moved to the Motion of Thanks. The Prime Minister usually replies to the debate on the Motion of Thanks. The discussion is a crucial opportunity for members to debate government policies and programmes outlined in the Address.

45. Consider the following statements regarding the time of holding electi

Consider the following statements regarding the time of holding election to fill vacancy in the office of President and the term of office of person elected to fill casual vacancy :

1. An election to fill a vacancy caused by the expiration of the term of office of President shall be completed before the expiration of the term.
2. An election to fill a vacancy in the office of President occurring by reason of his death, resignation or removal, or otherwise shall be held as soon as possible after, and in no case later than six months from, the date of occurrence of the vacancy.
3. The person elected to fill the vacancy shall, subject to the provisions of Article 52, be entitled to hold office for the full term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office.

Which of the above statements are correct ?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

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The correct answer is D.

Statement 1 is correct. Article 62(1) states that an election to fill a vacancy caused by the expiration of the term of office of President shall be completed before the expiration of the term.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 62(2) states that an election to fill a vacancy in the office of President occurring by reason of his death, resignation or removal, or otherwise shall be held as soon as possible after, and in no case later than six months from, the date of occurrence of the vacancy; and the person elected to fill the vacancy shall, subject to the provisions of article 56, be entitled to hold office for the full term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office.
Statement 3 is correct. As per the latter part of Article 62(2), read with Article 56(1) which defines the term of office, the person elected to fill a casual vacancy holds office for the full term of five years from the date they assume office, not just for the remainder of the previous President’s term. Article 52 simply states there shall be a President of India; it doesn’t impact the term length of a person filling a vacancy.

The provisions in Article 62 ensure continuity in the office of the President. For a vacancy caused by term expiry, the successor must be elected before the incumbent’s term ends. For a casual vacancy, a time limit of six months is prescribed for holding the election to avoid a prolonged vacancy. The person elected in a casual vacancy enjoys the same full term as a regularly elected President.

46. Consider the following statements regarding the election of Deputy Spe

Consider the following statements regarding the election of Deputy Speaker of the House :

1. The election of a Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix, and the Secretary-General shall send to every member notice of this date.
2. At any time before noon on the day preceding the date so fixed, any member may give notice in writing, addressed to the Secretary-General, of a motion that another member be chosen as the Deputy Speaker of the House.
3. The notice shall be seconded by a third member and shall be accompanied by a statement by the member whose name is proposed in the notice that the member proposed is willing to serve as Deputy Speaker.

Which of the above statements are correct ?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

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The correct answer is A.

Statement 1 is correct. Rule 8(1) of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha states: “The election shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix, and the Secretary-General shall send to every member notice of this date.”
Statement 2 is correct. Rule 8(2) of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha states: “At any time before noon on the day preceding the date so fixed, any member may give notice in writing, addressed to the Secretary-General, of a motion that another member be chosen as the Deputy Speaker of the House.”
Statement 3 is incorrect. Rule 8(3) states: “The notice shall be seconded by a member.” It does not require the notice to be seconded by a *third* member, just *a* member. Furthermore, while the proposed member must be willing to serve, the rules do not explicitly state that a written “statement of willingness” must *accompany the notice* given before noon on the preceding day. The willingness is usually confirmed during the process.

The election of the Deputy Speaker follows procedures laid down in the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha (Rule 8). The Deputy Speaker performs the duties of the Speaker’s office when it is vacant or when the Speaker is absent from a sitting of the House.

47. Consider the following statements in respect of the executive power of

Consider the following statements in respect of the executive power of the Union :

1. The executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President and shall be exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with the Constitution.
2. Without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing provision, the supreme command of the Defence Forces of the Union shall be vested in the President and the exercise thereof shall be regulated by law.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

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The correct answer is C.

Statement 1 is correct. Article 53(1) of the Constitution states that the executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President and shall be exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with this Constitution.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 53(2) states that without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing provision, the supreme command of the Defence Forces of the Union shall be vested in the President and the exercise thereof shall be regulated by law.

Article 53 defines the executive power of the Union and vests it in the President. While the President is the head of the executive, the power is typically exercised by the President on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers (as per Article 74). The President’s role as supreme commander of the defence forces is a significant executive function, the exercise of which is subject to regulation by law, reflecting the principle of civilian control over the military.

48. Consider the following statements : 1. The State shall, within the l

Consider the following statements :

1. The State shall, within the limits of its economic capacity and development, make effective provision for securing the right to work, to education and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement, and in other cases of undeserved want.
2. The State shall make provision for securing just and humane conditions of work and for maternity relief.
3. The State shall take steps to organise village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self-government.

Which of the above statements are correct ?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

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The correct answer is D.

Statement 1 is correct. This statement reflects the principle enshrined in Article 41 of the Constitution, which states that the State shall, within the limits of its economic capacity and development, make effective provision for securing the right to work, to education and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement, and in other cases of undeserved want.
Statement 2 is correct. This statement reflects the principle enshrined in Article 42 of the Constitution, which states that the State shall make provision for securing just and humane conditions of work and for maternity relief.
Statement 3 is correct. This statement reflects the principle enshrined in Article 40 of the Constitution, which states that the State shall take steps to organise village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self-government.

Statements 1, 2, and 3 are all part of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) contained in Part IV of the Indian Constitution. These principles are fundamental for the governance of the country and highlight the social and economic goals that the State should strive to achieve.

49. Consider the following statements regarding principles of policy to be

Consider the following statements regarding principles of policy to be followed by the State :
The State shall, in particular, direct its policy towards securing

1. that the citizens, men and women equally, have the right to an adequate means of livelihood.
2. that the ownership and control of the material resources of the community are so distributed as best to subserve the common good.
3. that the operation of the economic system results in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment.

Which of the above statements are correct ?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

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The correct answer is A.

Statement 1 is correct. Article 39(a) of the Constitution states that the State shall direct its policy towards securing that the citizens, men and women equally, have the right to an adequate means of livelihood.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 39(b) states that the State shall direct its policy towards securing that the ownership and control of the material resources of the community are so distributed as best to subserve the common good.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Article 39(c) states the opposite: that the State shall direct its policy towards securing that the operation of the economic system does *not* result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment.

Statements 1, 2, and 3 (as it should be according to the Constitution) are part of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), specifically Article 39, which lays down certain principles of policy to be followed by the State to promote the welfare of the people. These principles are fundamental in the governance of the country and are expected to guide the State in making laws.

50. In Article 164 of the Constitution of India, after Clause (1), which o

In Article 164 of the Constitution of India, after Clause (1), which one of the following clauses has been inserted ?

The total number of Ministers, including the Chief Minister, in the Council of Ministers in a State shall not exceed ten percent of the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly of that State.

The total number of Ministers, including the Chief Minister, in the Council of Ministers in a State shall not exceed thirty percent of the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly of that State.

The total number of Ministers, including the Chief Minister, in the Council of Ministers in a State shall not exceed fifteen percent of the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly of that State.

The total number of Ministers, including the Chief Minister, in the Council of Ministers in a State shall not exceed twenty percent of the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly of that State.

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Article 164 of the Constitution deals with the provisions relating to Ministers in a State. The Constitution (Ninety-first Amendment) Act, 2003, inserted a new clause, Clause (1A), after Clause (1) of Article 164. This clause specifies the maximum strength of the Council of Ministers in a State. It states that the total number of Ministers, including the Chief Minister, in the Council of Ministers in a State shall not exceed fifteen percent of the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly of that State.

This amendment was brought in to curb the practice of having oversized Councils of Ministers, which was seen as contributing to the instability of governments and increasing public expenditure.

The 91st Amendment Act, 2003, also added Clause (1B) to Article 164, which states that a member of a State Legislative Assembly belonging to any political party who is disqualified for being a member of the Assembly on the ground of defection shall also be disqualified to be appointed as a Minister. A similar provision regarding the maximum size of the Council of Ministers (15% of the strength of the Lok Sabha) was also added to Article 75(1A) for the Union Council of Ministers by the same amendment.