UPSC NDA-2 Archives

21. Which one of the following is the usual unit of measurement for Air Pr

Which one of the following is the usual unit of measurement for Air Pressure used in India ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Centimeter” option2=”Millibar” option3=”Milligram” option4=”Milliliter” correct=”option2″]

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In meteorology, including in India, air pressure is commonly measured and reported in millibars (mb) or hectopascals (hPa). One millibar is equal to one hectopascal (1 mb = 1 hPa). While the standard international unit for pressure is the Pascal (Pa), millibars/hectopascals remain widely used for atmospheric pressure due to historical conventions and convenience (standard atmospheric pressure at sea level is approximately 1013.25 mb or hPa). Centimeter, Milligram, and Milliliter are units of length, mass, and volume respectively.

Millibar (mb) or Hectopascal (hPa) are the standard units for measuring atmospheric pressure in meteorology.

A mercury barometer or an aneroid barometer are common instruments used to measure air pressure. Pressure is a force per unit area; 1 Pascal is defined as one Newton per square meter (N/m²).

22. Which one among the following pairs of mine and mineral is NOT correct

Which one among the following pairs of mine and mineral is NOT correctly matched ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Bailadila : Iron Ore” option2=”Zawar : Zinc” option3=”Ghatsila : Copper” option4=”Kudremukh : Bauxite” correct=”option4″]

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Kudremukh in Karnataka is historically famous for its large deposits and mining of Iron Ore, not Bauxite. Bauxite is the principal ore of Aluminium and is commonly found in regions like Odisha, Gujarat, Maharashtra, etc., often in laterite soils. Bailadila is a major Iron Ore mining region in Chhattisgarh. Zawar mines in Rajasthan are known for Zinc and Lead. Ghatsila in Jharkhand is a significant copper mining and smelting center.

Kudremukh was primarily an iron ore mining area.

Kudremukh iron ore mining operations were significant for exports, particularly to Japan. The mine was eventually closed due to environmental concerns and depletion of economically viable reserves.

23. “…the immediate ending of British rule in India is an urgent necessi

“…the immediate ending of British rule in India is an urgent necessity…” was a resolution of

[amp_mcq option1=”Non Co-operation Movement” option2=”Quit India Movement” option3=”Individual Movement” option4=”Civil Disobedience Movement” correct=”option2″]

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The resolution “Immediate ending of British rule in India is an urgent necessity…” is the core demand of the Quit India Movement, which was launched by Mahatma Gandhi in August 1942 during World War II. The Congress passed the ‘Quit India’ resolution at the Bombay session on August 8, 1942, calling for the immediate withdrawal of the British from India.

The call for the “immediate ending of British rule” was the central slogan and demand of the Quit India Movement (1942).

Other movements had different primary focuses or demands. The Non-Cooperation Movement aimed at non-cooperation to achieve Swaraj. The Civil Disobedience Movement aimed at breaking specific laws and achieving Purna Swaraj (complete independence), but the urgency and immediate nature emphasized in the quote are most strongly linked to the Quit India Movement in the context of WWII. Individual Satyagraha was a limited, symbolic protest.

24. In which one of the following ways did the First World War Not impact

In which one of the following ways did the First World War Not impact Europe ?

[amp_mcq option1=”From a continent of creditors it turned into a continent of debtors” option2=”Soldiers came to be placed higher in social status than civilians” option3=”Popular support decreased for conservative dictatorship which had come into being recently” option4=”National honour occupied centre stage in the public sphere” correct=”option3″]

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The First World War led to significant political and economic instability across Europe. While it did weaken liberal democracies in some regions, it did not generally decrease popular support for conservative dictatorships that emerged *after* the war. In fact, the post-war environment, characterized by economic hardship, political polarization, and a rise in nationalism, contributed to the rise of authoritarian and fascist regimes in countries like Italy and later Germany, which often garnered significant popular support based on promises of stability, national revival, and order. Options A, B, and D correctly describe consequences of WWI.

The political instability and economic problems following World War I in Europe often fostered environments conducive to the rise of authoritarian regimes, which sometimes enjoyed popular support, rather than decreasing it.

Other major impacts of WWI included vast human casualties, widespread destruction, the collapse of empires (Ottoman, Austro-Hungarian, Russian, German), significant geopolitical realignments, and the foundation of the League of Nations.

25. The ‘Reign of Terror’ in revolutionary France referred to

The ‘Reign of Terror’ in revolutionary France referred to

[amp_mcq option1=”Bands of revolutionaries moving around to terrorise people who did not participate in the revolution” option2=”The royal forces punishing people who participated in the revolution” option3=”Trial and beheading persons considered enemies of the republic by the revolutionary tribunal” option4=”The general atmosphere of insecurity perceived by people after the beheading of the king” correct=”option3″]

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The ‘Reign of Terror’ (roughly 1793-1794) during the French Revolution was a period characterized by intense violence orchestrated by the Committee of Public Safety and the revolutionary government. Its primary purpose was to eliminate perceived enemies of the revolution, including royalists, Girondins, and anyone suspected of counter-revolutionary activities. These individuals were subjected to swift trials, often with minimal legal protections, by the Revolutionary Tribunal and were frequently executed, most famously by guillotine.

The Reign of Terror was a phase of the French Revolution marked by systematic repression and execution of those considered enemies of the new republic by the revolutionary authorities.

Key figures associated with the Reign of Terror include Maximilien Robespierre, who dominated the Committee of Public Safety. The period ended with the Thermidorian Reaction in July 1794, which led to Robespierre’s own arrest and execution.

26. Which one of the following statements about the Bhakti movement is NOT

Which one of the following statements about the Bhakti movement is NOT correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”The Bhakti movement avoided traditions that promoted diversity” option2=”In northern India, the Bhakti movement revolved around the worship of Rama and Krishna” option3=”The Bhakti movement relied on the devotion of God, both with and without attributes” option4=”While Tulsidas represented the tradition of devotion with attributes, Sant Kabir followed the path of devotion without attributes” correct=”option1″]

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Statement A is NOT correct. The Bhakti movement was characterized by its inclusive nature and often incorporated or celebrated diverse regional traditions, languages, and social backgrounds. It challenged rigid caste hierarchies and ritualistic practices, opening paths to devotion for people from all walks of life, thus promoting, rather than avoiding, a degree of social and cultural diversity in religious expression.

The Bhakti movement was a significant socio-religious reform movement in medieval India that emphasized personal devotion to God, challenging established orthodoxies and promoting egalitarianism and diverse expressions of faith.

Statements B, C, and D are correct descriptions of aspects of the Bhakti movement. Many prominent North Indian saints (e.g., Surdas, Mirabai, Tulsidas) were devotees of Rama or Krishna. The movement included both Saguna (God with attributes/form, like Rama, Krishna) and Nirguna (formless, attributeless God, like advocated by Kabir and Nanak) streams of devotion. Tulsidas was a Saguna devotee (Rama), and Kabir was a prominent Nirguna saint.

27. Which one of the following was NOT a way in which kings in ancient Ind

Which one of the following was NOT a way in which kings in ancient India attempted to claim a higher status ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Identifying with a variety of deities” option2=”Assuming pompous titles” option3=”Imposing high taxes” option4=”Conquests and annexation of territories” correct=”option3″]

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Ancient Indian kings used various methods to elevate their status and legitimize their rule. Identifying with deities (e.g., claiming divine lineage or being representatives of gods) was a common way to reinforce authority. Assuming grand and pompous titles (like Maharajadhiraja, Samrat, Chakravartin) directly proclaimed their power and superiority. Conquests and annexation of territories demonstrated military strength and expanded their influence, bringing prestige and validating their claim to a higher status. Imposing high taxes, while a means of extracting resources and exercising power, was primarily an administrative and economic function rather than a method for *claiming* higher inherent status. High taxes could even lead to resentment rather than being a source of popular legitimacy for elevated status.

Claiming higher status often involved symbolic actions, assertions of divine connection, military prowess, and grand pronouncements, distinguishing it from the practical exercise of administrative power like taxation.

Examples include the Kushana rulers adopting titles like ‘Devaputra’ (son of god), Gupta emperors using titles like ‘Maharajadhiraja’, and numerous dynasties performing Ashvamedha sacrifices after conquests to assert their paramountcy.

28. Relationship between a flower and honey-bee will help the flower

Relationship between a flower and honey-bee will help the flower for/in

[amp_mcq option1=”Faster development” option2=”Pollination” option3=”Quick germination of pollen” option4=”Increase in size” correct=”option2″]

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Honey-bees are common pollinators. When a honey-bee visits a flower to collect nectar or pollen, it inadvertently picks up pollen grains on its body. As it visits other flowers of the same species, it transfers pollen to the stigma, facilitating pollination. Pollination is the transfer of pollen from the anther to the stigma, a necessary step for fertilization and subsequent seed and fruit development in many flowering plants.

The relationship between flowering plants and pollinators like honey-bees is a classic example of mutualism, where the flower benefits from pollination (leading to reproduction), and the bee benefits from food resources (nectar and pollen).

While successful pollination leads to seed/fruit development which is part of the plant’s life cycle, the direct benefit to the flower from the bee’s visit is the act of pollination itself. The bee’s visit does not directly cause faster flower development, quicker pollen germination (which happens after pollination on the stigma under favorable conditions), or increase in flower size.

29. In a sexually reproducing organism, which one of the following stateme

In a sexually reproducing organism, which one of the following statements is appropriate both for the parent and offspring ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Chromosome number increases but DNA content remains constant” option2=”Both chromosome number and DNA content remains constant” option3=”Chromosome number decreases but DNA content remains constant” option4=”Both chromosome number and DNA content decreases” correct=”option2″]

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In a sexually reproducing species, the characteristic chromosome number remains constant from one generation to the next. Meiosis in the parent produces haploid gametes (n chromosomes, half the DNA content per set of chromosomes compared to somatic cells). Fertilization of two haploid gametes restores the diploid chromosome number (2n) in the offspring zygote. The amount of DNA per set of chromosomes is also maintained across generations through the DNA replication and segregation processes during cell division. Therefore, comparing the somatic cells of a parent and its offspring, both the chromosome number (2n) and the DNA content per somatic cell remain constant for the species.

Sexual reproduction involves the halving of chromosome number during gamete formation (meiosis) and the restoration of the diploid number during fertilization, thereby maintaining the species-specific chromosome number and genetic content across generations.

While the DNA content fluctuates within a single cell cycle (doubling before division and halving during division), the fundamental amount of DNA associated with the diploid chromosome set characteristic of the species remains constant across parent and offspring generations in terms of somatic cells.

30. In angiosperms, pollen grain germinates to produce two male gametes. W

In angiosperms, pollen grain germinates to produce two male gametes. Which one of the following functions is carried out by these gametes ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Both the gametes fuse with a single egg cell” option2=”Both the gametes fuse with two different egg cells” option3=”One gamete fuses with the egg cell and the other one eventually degenerate” option4=”One gamete fuses with the egg cell and the other one fuses with a diploid secondary nucleus” correct=”option4″]

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In angiosperms, the pollen grain contains two male gametes. During double fertilization, one male gamete fuses with the egg cell to form the diploid zygote, which develops into the embryo. The other male gamete fuses with the diploid secondary nucleus (formed by the fusion of two polar nuclei) within the embryo sac to form the triploid primary endosperm nucleus (PEN), which develops into the nutritive tissue called endosperm. This process of fertilization of both the egg cell and the secondary nucleus is unique to angiosperms.

Double fertilization is a characteristic feature of angiosperms, involving two male gametes: one fertilizes the egg (forming the zygote), and the other fertilizes the secondary nucleus (forming the endosperm).

The pollen tube grows down the style and enters the ovule, releasing the two male gametes into the embryo sac. This ensures efficient delivery and participation of both gametes in the fertilization process.