UPSC NDA-2 Archives

1. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (Dynasty)	List II (Architecture)
A. Chalukyas	1. Sun Temple, Konark
B. Hoysalas	2. Pattadakal
C. Pandyas	3. Kesava Temple, Somnathpur
D. Eastern Gangas	4. Eastern gopura of Chidambaram Temple

Code:

1 3 2 4

1 2 3 4

2 4 3 1

2 3 4 1

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Matching List I (Dynasty) with List II (Architecture):
A. Chalukyas are known for their temple architecture at Pattadakal, Aihole, and Badami. Pattadakal (2) is a UNESCO World Heritage site showcasing Chalukyan architecture.
B. Hoysalas are famous for their intricate temple carvings and unique architectural style found in sites like Halebidu, Belur, and Somnathpur. The Kesava Temple at Somnathpur (3) is a prime example of Hoysala architecture.
C. Pandyas significantly contributed to the development of temple complexes in South India, especially through the construction of large gopurams (gateway towers). The eastern gopura of Chidambaram Temple (4) is often attributed to Pandya patronage, reflecting their architectural style and grandeur.
D. Eastern Gangas were a prominent dynasty in Odisha and are credited with building magnificent temples like the Sun Temple at Konark (1) and the Jagannath Temple at Puri.
Thus, the correct match is A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1.

This question tests knowledge of major South Indian dynasties and their contributions to temple architecture. Identifying key sites and architectural styles associated with each dynasty is crucial.

The Chalukyan architecture (6th-12th centuries) shows a blend of Nagara and Dravidian styles. Hoysala architecture (10th-14th centuries) is known for its stellate plans, intricate carvings, and soapstone material. Pandya architecture (6th-14th centuries, peak during the Later Pandyas) is characterized by massive temple complexes, elaborate gopurams, and tank construction. The Eastern Ganga dynasty (5th-15th centuries) played a vital role in the Kalinga style of architecture, seen in the famous temples of Odisha.

2. Which of the following statements about hill stations of colonial Indi

Which of the following statements about hill stations of colonial India is/are correct?

1. The architecture of hill stations sought to recreate the European style
2. Hill stations were developed as sanitariums where soldiers were treated for illness
3. Shimla became the official residence of the Commander in Chief of the Indian Army
4. In 1864, Shimla had to be evacuated because of a Typhoid epidemic

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 only

1, 2 and 3

3 and 4

2 and 3 only

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Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct regarding the colonial hill stations in India. Statement 4, regarding the specific evacuation of Shimla in 1864 due to a Typhoid epidemic, is not a widely cited or confirmed major historical event, making it likely incorrect in the context of such a general question about characteristics. Therefore, options 1, 2, and 3 are the correct statements.

Colonial hill stations in India served multiple purposes for the British: they provided a cooler climate reminiscent of Europe, offered a retreat from tropical diseases (acting as sanitariums), and became administrative and military centers. The architecture often mimicked European styles like cottages, churches, and public buildings. Shimla, in particular, became the summer capital and an important military headquarters.

The development of hill stations like Shimla, Mussoorie, Darjeeling, and Ooty was a significant aspect of British colonial infrastructure in India. They facilitated the administration by allowing the British to escape the heat of the plains and provided health benefits, especially for European soldiers and civilians susceptible to tropical ailments. While health and sanitation were issues in these growing towns, especially with rapid population increase during the summer, a full evacuation specifically in 1864 due to typhoid is not a commonly documented event on the scale suggested.

3. Consider the following statements about the travellers who visited Ind

Consider the following statements about the travellers who visited India:
1. Abdur Razzaq Samarqandi from Herat visited Delhi and Daulatabad.
2. Ibn Battuta provides detailed accounts of both Delhi and Daulatabad.
3. According to Francois Bernier there was no private property in land in Mughal India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

1, 2 and 3

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

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The correct option is D) 2 and 3 only.

1. Statement 1 is incorrect: Abdur Razzaq Samarqandi, a Persian traveler and ambassador, visited the Vijayanagara Empire (during the reign of Devaraya II in the 15th century). His detailed account focuses on the city of Vijayanagara. He did not primarily visit Delhi and Daulatabad for his renowned observations in India.
2. Statement 2 is correct: Ibn Battuta, a Moroccan traveler of the 14th century, spent several years in India during the reign of Muhammad bin Tughluq of the Delhi Sultanate. His travelogue, the Rihla, provides extensive and detailed accounts of life in Delhi and also describes Daulatabad, where Tughluq briefly shifted his capital.
3. Statement 3 is correct: Francois Bernier, a French physician and traveler who visited India in the 17th century during the Mughal Empire, wrote extensively about his observations. In his “Travels in the Mogul Empire,” he famously argued that there was no private ownership of land in Mughal India and that the land ultimately belonged to the Emperor. While historians debate the accuracy and nuances of this claim, Bernier *did* state this in his account.

These travellers’ accounts are valuable primary sources for understanding the history, society, and economy of the regions they visited in India. However, it’s important to evaluate their perspectives and potential biases, as they were often writing from an outsider’s viewpoint.

4. The ‘Basic Structure Doctrine’ was enunciated by the Supreme Court dur

The ‘Basic Structure Doctrine’ was enunciated by the Supreme Court during the:

Golak Nath case

Maneka Gandhi case

Kesavananda Bharati case

S R Bommai case

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The correct option is C) Kesavananda Bharati case.

The doctrine of ‘Basic Structure’ of the Constitution of India was enunciated by the Supreme Court in the landmark judgement of the Kesavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala case in 1973. The Court held that while the Parliament has the power to amend the Constitution under Article 368, it cannot alter or destroy the basic structure or framework of the Constitution.

– Option A (Golak Nath case, 1967): In this case, the Supreme Court held that Parliament could not abridge or take away the Fundamental Rights, which were considered transcendent and immutable. However, the concept of ‘basic structure’ was not explicitly formulated here, though the judgement laid some groundwork for limiting Parliament’s amending power.
– Option B (Maneka Gandhi case, 1978): This case significantly interpreted the scope of Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty), establishing that the procedure established by law must be fair, just, and reasonable (incorporating aspects of ‘due process’). It is not where the Basic Structure Doctrine was enunciated.
– Option D (S R Bommai case, 1994): This judgement related to the misuse of Article 356 (President’s Rule) and held that the power under Article 356 is not absolute and is subject to judicial review. The judgement applied the basic structure doctrine by stating that federalism is a basic feature of the Constitution. However, the doctrine itself was not *enunciated* in this case but applied.

5. The Vijayanagara Empire received its death blow at the battle of:

The Vijayanagara Empire received its death blow at the battle of:

Talikota in 1565

Panipat in 1661

Talikota in 1665

Raichur in 1510

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The correct option is A) Talikota in 1565.

The Vijayanagara Empire suffered a decisive defeat in the Battle of Talikota (also known as the Battle of Rakshasa-Tangadi) in 1565 against a confederacy of Deccan Sultanates (Bijapur, Golconda, Ahmadnagar, and Bidar). This battle led to the sacking of the capital city Vijayanagara and marked the beginning of the decline and eventual collapse of the empire.

– Option B (Panipat in 1661): The Battles of Panipat were fought in 1526, 1556, and 1761, and are primarily associated with the Delhi Sultanate, the Mughal Empire, and the Marathas, not the Vijayanagara Empire. 1661 is not a date of a major Panipat battle.
– Option C (Talikota in 1665): The year is incorrect; the battle was in 1565.
– Option D (Raichur in 1510): The Battle of Raichur (1520, not 1510) was a major victory for Krishnadevaraya of Vijayanagara against the Sultan of Bijapur, representing a peak of the empire’s power, not its death blow.

6. Which of the following features of the Permanent Settlement of 1793 is

Which of the following features of the Permanent Settlement of 1793 is/are correct?
1. The Permanent Settlement vested Land ownership rights in the peasants
2. The Permanent Settlement vested land ownership rights in the Zamindars
3. The Zamindars had to pay a fixed amount of rent by a particular date
4. The Zamindars benefited hugely from the Permanent Settlement while the peasants suffered
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

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The correct option is B) 2 and 3 only.

1. Statement 1 is incorrect: The Permanent Settlement of 1793, introduced by Lord Cornwallis in Bengal, Bihar, and Odisha, vested land ownership rights in the Zamindars, not the peasants.
2. Statement 2 is correct: The Permanent Settlement made Zamindars the proprietors of the land in their area.
3. Statement 3 is correct: Zamindars were required to pay a fixed amount of land revenue to the British government by a specified date, failing which their zamindari could be auctioned (the ‘Sunset Clause’).
4. Statement 4 is correct in describing the consequence: The Zamindars, now landowners, benefited hugely by extracting high rents from the peasants (tenants) while paying a fixed, often lower, amount to the state. The peasants, reduced to tenants, suffered from high rents, insecurity of tenure, and lack of rights. However, when identifying the *features* of the settlement itself, statements 2 and 3 which define the structure of ownership and revenue payment are more directly describing the system’s design. Statement 4 describes the resulting impact/outcome. Given the options, B containing the core structural features is the most appropriate answer if the question focuses on the system’s design.

The Permanent Settlement aimed to ensure a stable revenue flow for the British East India Company and create a loyal class of landlords (Zamindars) who would support the British rule. However, it had significant adverse effects on the peasantry.

7. The British Officer who was a representative of the Governor General a

The British Officer who was a representative of the Governor General and who lived in a State which was not under direct British rule was called:

Collector

Viceroy

Resident

Agent

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The correct option is C) Resident.

Under the system of Subsidiary Alliance and during the period of British paramountcy, the British Government appointed an officer, known as the Resident, to represent the Governor General in the courts of the princely states that were not under direct British rule but had entered into agreements with the British. The Resident’s role was initially diplomatic but gradually evolved into exercising considerable influence and control over the state’s internal affairs.

– A Collector was a revenue official in British-administered districts.
– A Viceroy was the Governor General representing the Crown in British India, presiding over the directly ruled territories.
– An Agent to the Governor General (AGG) was also a representative, often overseeing a group of states or a large region like Rajputana or Central India. The Resident was typically posted within a specific important state. While roles could overlap or be used interchangeably in some contexts, ‘Resident’ is the most accurate term for the officer permanently stationed in a major princely state.

8. The Fourth Schedule to the Constitution of India deals with:

The Fourth Schedule to the Constitution of India deals with:

provisions related to the administration of tribal areas.

allocation of seats in the Council of States.

the Union List, the State List and the Concurrent List.

recognized languages of the Union of India.

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The correct option is B) allocation of seats in the Council of States.

The Fourth Schedule to the Constitution of India deals with the allocation of seats for each State and Union Territory in the Rajya Sabha (Council of States), which is the upper house of the Parliament of India.

– Option A (provisions related to the administration of tribal areas): This is primarily dealt with in the Fifth Schedule (for Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes across several states) and the Sixth Schedule (for tribal areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram).
– Option C (the Union List, the State List and the Concurrent List): These lists enumerating the subjects on which the Union and State Governments have legislative powers are found in the Seventh Schedule.
– Option D (recognized languages of the Union of India): The officially recognized languages of India are listed in the Eighth Schedule.

9. Which one of the following is not correct in the current Indian

Which one of the following is not correct in the current Indian scenario?

Life expectancy is on the increase and is about 67 years as of now.

Infant mortality rate is on the decline and has reached 47 per thousand.

Maternal mortality rate (MMR) is on the rise due to lack of medical facilities.

Percentage of women giving birth in health institutions is on the rise.

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The correct option is C) Maternal mortality rate (MMR) is on the rise due to lack of medical facilities. This statement is not correct in the current Indian scenario.

– Statement A is correct: Life expectancy in India has been steadily increasing due to improvements in healthcare and living standards. While “about 67 years” might be slightly outdated for the *most current* data (it’s closer to 70-71 now), the statement says “is on the increase” and provides a plausible figure from recent past, making it not incorrect in essence.
– Statement B is correct: The Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) in India has been declining significantly over the years. While 47 per thousand was the IMR around the late 2000s/early 2010s, stating it “has reached 47 per thousand” on its decline path is correct, even if the current IMR is lower (around 28 as of 2020). The statement doesn’t say it *is currently* 47, but that it *has reached* that point (implying a decline).
– Statement C is incorrect: Maternal Mortality Rate (MMR) in India has been declining steadily due to increased institutional deliveries, improved access to healthcare, and better maternal and child health programmes. It is not on the rise.
– Statement D is correct: The percentage of women giving birth in health institutions (hospitals, clinics etc.) has significantly increased over the years, which is a major factor contributing to the decline in IMR and MMR.

India has made substantial progress in improving health indicators like IMR and MMR, although regional disparities persist. The decline in MMR is a notable achievement in public health, dropping from 130 per 100,000 live births in 2014-2016 to 97 in 2018-2020.

10. Which one of the following statements about the Khilafat Movement is n

Which one of the following statements about the Khilafat Movement is not correct?

The Khilafat Movement demanded that the Khalifa must retain control over Muslim holy places.

The radical trend in the Khilafat Movement was represented by younger leaders like Muhammad Ali, Shaukat Ali, and Maulana Azad.

Indian Muslim leaders used Khilafat as a symbol that could unite the Indian Muslim community.

The Delhi conference of the Central Khilafat Committee in 1920 decided to launch a massive Non-Cooperation Movement.

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The correct option is D) The Delhi conference of the Central Khilafat Committee in 1920 decided to launch a massive Non-Cooperation Movement. This statement is not entirely accurate.

– Statement A is correct: One of the key demands of the Khilafat Movement was the preservation of the Ottoman Caliphate and the protection of Muslim holy places under his control.
– Statement B is correct: Younger, radical leaders like the Ali brothers (Muhammad Ali and Shaukat Ali) and Maulana Abul Kalam Azad were prominent figures who represented a more assertive approach within the movement.
– Statement C is correct: The Khilafat issue provided a common platform and a potent symbol that Indian Muslim leaders used to mobilize and unite the diverse Indian Muslim community on a pan-Islamic cause.
– Statement D is not correct: While the Khilafat Committee played a crucial role in initiating the Non-Cooperation Movement in India and endorsed it, the decision for a massive Non-Cooperation Movement involving various stages of boycott and civil disobedience was a joint effort involving both the Khilafat leaders and Mahatma Gandhi and the Congress. The Khilafat Committee’s meeting in Bombay in May 1920, presided over by Gandhi, endorsed the non-cooperation programme. The Indian National Congress formally adopted the Non-Cooperation resolution at its Calcutta session in September 1920, and launched the movement on August 1, 1920. The specific Delhi conference mentioned deciding to *launch* the massive movement is inaccurate regarding the specific decision-making process and timing.

The Khilafat Movement was launched in India (1919-1924) to protest against the harsh terms imposed on the Ottoman Empire after World War I by the Treaty of Sevres and to support the Caliph as the spiritual head of Muslims worldwide. It merged with the Non-Cooperation Movement launched by the Indian National Congress from 1920 to 1922, making it the first major all-India mass movement against British rule.