11. Which of the following statements about the Livestock sector in India

Which of the following statements about the Livestock sector in India is/are correct ?

1. Livestock contributed about 25 per cent of gross value added in agriculture

2. It provides self employment to a large segment of population

3. Rapid growth of livestock sector can be egalitarian and inclusive

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

3 only
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
This question was previously asked in
UPSC NDA-2 – 2015
The correct option is D) 1, 2 and 3. All three statements are correct.
1. The livestock sector is a significant contributor to the Gross Value Added (GVA) in agriculture and allied sectors in India. While the exact percentage varies slightly year to year, it consistently contributes a substantial portion, often cited around 25-30% or more of the GVA from agriculture, forestry, and fishing. Thus, the statement “about 25 per cent” is accurate.
2. Livestock rearing provides self-employment opportunities to a large number of people, particularly in rural areas. It is a primary source of livelihood for small and marginal farmers, landless labourers, and women.
3. The rapid growth of the livestock sector, especially dairy, poultry, and small ruminants, has the potential to be egalitarian and inclusive. It allows people with small landholdings or no land to earn income and improve their economic status, thereby contributing to poverty reduction and equitable growth.
Livestock sector growth is often seen as a pathway to diversify income, improve nutritional security, and empower vulnerable sections of the population. Government policies have increasingly focused on supporting this sector for its potential contribution to rural economy and inclusive development.

12. An emergency under Article 352 of the Constitution of India can be dec

An emergency under Article 352 of the Constitution of India can be declared only during:

War, external aggression or internal disturbance.
War, external aggression or armed rebellion.
Failure of Constitutional Machinery in the State.
Financial instability in the country.
This question was previously asked in
UPSC NDA-2 – 2015
The correct option is B) War, external aggression or armed rebellion.
Article 352 of the Constitution of India deals with the Proclamation of Emergency, also known as National Emergency. The original text of Article 352 provided for the declaration of emergency on grounds of ‘war’, ‘external aggression’, or ‘internal disturbance’. However, the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978, replaced the term ‘internal disturbance’ with ‘armed rebellion’ to prevent the arbitrary use of this provision based on political unrest not amounting to armed revolt.
– Option A uses the term ‘internal disturbance’, which was removed by the 44th Amendment.
– Option C refers to the failure of constitutional machinery in a state, which is covered under Article 356 (President’s Rule or State Emergency), not Article 352.
– Option D refers to financial instability, which is covered under Article 360 (Financial Emergency), not Article 352.

13. During the Eleventh Five Year Plan (FYP), agriculture sector in India

During the Eleventh Five Year Plan (FYP), agriculture sector in India witnessed a growth rate of 3.3 per cent per annum which is higher than 2.4 per cent per annum in the previous FYP. This is largely due to better performance of:

Crops and Livestock
Oilseeds and Fibres
Oilseeds and Fishing
Fibres and Fishing
This question was previously asked in
UPSC NDA-2 – 2015
The correct answer is A) Crops and Livestock. The agriculture sector includes crops, livestock, fisheries, and forestry. The higher growth rate of the agriculture sector during the Eleventh Five Year Plan (2007-2012) compared to the Tenth FYP was largely attributed to improved performance across multiple sub-sectors. While crop production saw recovery and growth due to various interventions and rainfall patterns, the livestock sector consistently demonstrated strong growth and contributed significantly to the overall agricultural growth figure. Together, the performance of the broad crops sector and the livestock sector were the primary drivers of the improved growth rate.
Improved performance in both the Crops sector and the Livestock sector were key contributors to the higher agricultural growth rate during the 11th FYP.
While oilseeds, fibres, and fishing are components of the agriculture sector, focusing on only specific crops or individual allied activities like fishing does not capture the broad-based nature of the growth that occurred. The cumulative contribution of the entire crops segment (including foodgrains, horticulture, etc.) and the livestock sector (milk, meat, poultry) was crucial in achieving the higher overall growth target.

14. Who among the following was associated with the Mughal Court as a phys

Who among the following was associated with the Mughal Court as a physician to Prince Dara Shukoh?

Hakim Afzal Khan
Ibn Battuta
Francois Bernier
Duarte Barbosa
This question was previously asked in
UPSC NDA-2 – 2015
The correct answer is C) Francois Bernier. Francois Bernier was a French physician, traveller, and philosopher who visited India during the reign of the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb. He was, for a time, the personal physician of Prince Dara Shukoh, the eldest son of Emperor Shah Jahan, before Dara’s defeat and execution in the war of succession. Bernier’s travelogue, “Travels in the Mughal Empire,” is a valuable source of information about 17th-century India.
Francois Bernier was a European traveler who served as a physician in the Mughal court, including attending to Prince Dara Shukoh.
Ibn Battuta was a Moroccan traveller who visited India much earlier, in the 14th century, during the Delhi Sultanate period (reign of Muhammad bin Tughluq). Duarte Barbosa was a Portuguese writer who visited the Vijayanagara Empire in the early 16th century. Hakim Afzal Khan was likely a physician, but Francois Bernier is specifically documented as being associated with Dara Shukoh’s court.

15. Which one of the following statements about Subsidiary Alliance devise

Which one of the following statements about Subsidiary Alliance devised by Lord Wellesley in the year 1798 is not correct?

The territories entering into a subsidiary alliance with the British were responsible for their own internal and external protection
In the territory of the ally, a British armed contingent would be stationed
The ally would have to provide the resources for maintaining the British contingent in the territory
The permission of the British was needed for the ally to enter into agreements with other rulers
This question was previously asked in
UPSC NDA-2 – 2015
The correct answer is A) The territories entering into a subsidiary alliance with the British were responsible for their own internal and external protection. This statement is incorrect. Under the Subsidiary Alliance system, the British East India Company undertook the responsibility for the external defence and internal security of the Indian state that accepted the alliance. In return, the state had to disband its own army, accept a British Resident, and cede territory or pay tribute for the maintenance of the British force stationed within its territory. The state effectively lost its sovereignty, particularly in matters of defence and foreign relations.
Under the Subsidiary Alliance, the British assumed the defence responsibility for the allied state, making the state dependent on the British for protection.
Statements B, C, and D correctly describe aspects of the Subsidiary Alliance system: a British contingent was stationed in the ally’s territory (B), the ally had to pay for this contingent (C), and the ally lost the right to negotiate independently with other rulers (D).

16. The two provisions of the Constitution of India that most clearly expr

The two provisions of the Constitution of India that most clearly express the power of judicial review are:

Article 21 and Article 446
Article 32 and Article 226
Article 44 and Article 152
Article 17 and Article 143
This question was previously asked in
UPSC NDA-2 – 2015
The correct answer is B) Article 32 and Article 226. These two articles are the most direct constitutional provisions that enable judicial review in India. Article 32 guarantees the right to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights and empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs (Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, and Quo Warranto) for this purpose. Article 226 grants similar powers to the High Courts to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights and also for any other legal right. These articles allow courts to review the constitutionality of laws and executive actions if they violate fundamental or other legal rights.
Articles 32 and 226 provide citizens with the means to directly approach the Supreme Court and High Courts, respectively, to challenge violations of rights through the power of issuing writs, thereby acting as mechanisms for judicial review.
While the power of judicial review is also implicitly derived from other articles (like Article 13 which voids laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights, the structure of the Constitution establishing the judiciary as the interpreter and protector of the Constitution, etc.), Articles 32 and 226 are the procedural backbone for invoking this power, particularly concerning rights enforcement. Other options are incorrect as Article 21 is a fundamental right itself, Article 44 is a DPSP, Article 17 is a fundamental right, Article 143 is related to advisory jurisdiction, and Article 152 defines ‘State’ for a different part of the Constitution. Article 446 does not exist in the Indian Constitution.

17. Which one of the following continents accounts for the maximum share i

Which one of the following continents accounts for the maximum share in exports from India?

Asia
Europe
Africa
North America
This question was previously asked in
UPSC NDA-2 – 2015
The correct answer is A) Asia. Historically and in recent decades, the continent of Asia has been the largest destination for India’s exports, accounting for the maximum share compared to Europe, Africa, or North America. This includes significant trade with countries in West Asia, South East Asia (ASEAN), and East Asia.
Asia consistently remains the largest market for Indian exports.
While trade relations with Europe (including the UK post-Brexit), North America (USA), and Africa are also significant and growing, the cumulative share of different Asian regions typically exceeds that of other individual continents. Major export partners in Asia include UAE, Saudi Arabia, Singapore, Hong Kong, China, Bangladesh, etc.

18. Which one of the following is not correct in the context of balance of

Which one of the following is not correct in the context of balance of payments of India during 2013-2014?

India's exports were less than its imports
Trade balance was negative
Net invisibles were positive
Capital account balance was negative
This question was previously asked in
UPSC NDA-2 – 2015
The correct answer is D) Capital account balance was negative. Based on official data for India’s balance of payments during the financial year 2013-2014, India had a significant trade deficit (exports were less than imports, leading to a negative trade balance). Net invisibles (services, transfers, income) were positive, helping to offset part of the trade deficit. Crucially, the capital account recorded a *surplus* (positive balance), driven by foreign investments and other capital inflows, which helped finance the current account deficit. Therefore, the statement that the Capital account balance was negative is incorrect.
In 2013-14, India experienced a current account deficit financed by a surplus in the capital account.
For 2013-14, India’s trade deficit was around $137.5 billion. Net invisibles surplus was around $93.4 billion, resulting in a current account deficit of $44.1 billion. The capital account surplus was around $48.0 billion, which covered the current account deficit and led to an overall increase in foreign exchange reserves.

19. The word ‘Secular’ was inserted into the Constitution of India by:

The word ‘Secular’ was inserted into the Constitution of India by:

44th Amendment Act
52nd Amendment Act
42nd Amendment Act
34th Amendment Act
This question was previously asked in
UPSC NDA-2 – 2015
The correct answer is C) 42nd Amendment Act. The word ‘Secular’ was inserted into the Preamble of the Constitution of India by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976, also known as the ‘Mini-Constitution’, passed during the Emergency period. Along with ‘Secular’, the words ‘Socialist’ and ‘Integrity’ were also added to the Preamble.
The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added ‘Secular’, ‘Socialist’, and ‘Integrity’ to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution.
The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 repealed some changes made by the 42nd Amendment and restored the original term of the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies. The 52nd Amendment Act of 1985 introduced the anti-defection law. The 34th Amendment Act of 1974 included various state land reform acts in the Ninth Schedule.

20. According to the Geo-scientists, the shape of the earth is: 1. round 2

According to the Geo-scientists, the shape of the earth is:
1. round
2. spherical
3. close to that of a sphere
4. an oblate ellipsoid
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

2, 3 and 4
1, 2 and 3
1 and 2 only
3 and 4 only
This question was previously asked in
UPSC NDA-2 – 2015
The correct answer is D) 3 and 4 only. According to geoscientists, the Earth’s shape is most accurately described as an oblate ellipsoid (or oblate spheroid), meaning it is flattened at the poles and bulges at the equator due to its rotation. While it is also approximately spherical or close to that of a sphere, “oblate ellipsoid” is the precise geodetic term for its overall shape. “Close to that of a sphere” is also accurate as it acknowledges the deviation from a perfect sphere while still capturing the general shape. “Round” and “spherical” are less precise terms used in common language.
Geoscientists use precise terms like ‘oblate ellipsoid’ to describe the Earth’s shape, which deviates from a perfect sphere.
The Earth’s equatorial diameter is about 43 km larger than its polar diameter. This slight bulge makes ‘oblate ellipsoid’ the most accurate geometric model. Saying it’s “close to that of a sphere” is also factually correct, as the deviation is relatively small compared to the overall size. Therefore, options 3 and 4 represent the descriptions used by geoscientists, with 4 being the most specific geometrical model.

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