UPSC NDA-1 Archives

11. Which of the following statements relating to election as the Presiden

Which of the following statements relating to election as the President of India is/are correct?

1. A person above the age of thirty-five years is eligible for election as the President of India.
2. The President of India is eligible for re-election for more than one term.
3. A person is not eligible for election as the President of India if the person holds an office of profit.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1 and 2 only

2 only

1, 2 and 3

3 only

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Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC NDA-1 – 2016

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All three statements regarding the eligibility criteria for election as the President of India are correct according to the Constitution.

– Statement 1 is correct (Article 58(1)(b)): A person must have completed the age of thirty-five years.
– Statement 2 is correct (Article 57): There is no constitutional restriction on the number of terms a person can be re-elected as President.
– Statement 3 is correct (Article 58(2)): A person is not eligible if they hold any office of profit under the Government of India, any State government, or any local or other authority under the control of any of the said governments (except for the President, Vice-President, Governor, or a Minister).

Other qualifications for becoming President include being a citizen of India (Article 58(1)(a)) and being qualified for election as a member of the House of the People (Article 58(1)(c)).

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12. Which of the following statements relating to the Comptroller and Audi

Which of the following statements relating to the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is/are correct?

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1. The CAG can attend the sittings of the Committee on Public Accounts.
2. The CAG can attend the sittings of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
3. The jurisdiction of CAG is co-extensive with powers of the Union Government.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 3

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC NDA-1 – 2016

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Statement 1 is correct; the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India attends the sittings of the Committee on Public Accounts as its guide. Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect. The CAG does not attend sittings of Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha, and their jurisdiction extends beyond just the Union Government.

– The CAG is the auditor of the accounts of the Union and State governments and various public authorities.
– The CAG submits audit reports to the President (for Union accounts) or Governor (for State accounts), which are then laid before the respective legislatures.
– The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) examines these reports, and the CAG assists the PAC in this process. This makes the CAG’s presence in PAC sittings essential.
– The CAG does not participate in parliamentary debates or attend sittings of the Houses of Parliament.
– The CAG’s jurisdiction covers the financial audits of both the Union and State governments and bodies funded by them, making it co-extensive with the financial powers of both levels of government, not just the Union.

Article 148 of the Constitution provides for an independent office of the CAG. The CAG is appointed by the President and can only be removed from office by the President on grounds and in a manner similar to a judge of the Supreme Court.

13. Consider the following statements : 1. The Amendment procedure has b

Consider the following statements :

1. The Amendment procedure has been provided in Article 368 of the Constitution of India.
2. The consent of the States is mandatory for all Amendments to the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC NDA-1 – 2016

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Statement 1 is correct as Article 368 of the Constitution of India deals with the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and the procedure for doing so. Statement 2 is incorrect because the consent of the States is not mandatory for *all* amendments, but only for those affecting certain provisions related to the federal structure.

– Article 368 outlines two methods of amendment: by a special majority of Parliament (2/3rd of members present and voting, supported by more than 50% of total membership) and by a special majority of Parliament plus ratification by the legislatures of not less than one-half of the States.
– Amendments requiring state ratification include changes related to the election of the President, extent of executive power of the Union and States, Supreme Court and High Courts, distribution of legislative powers, representation of States in Parliament, and Article 368 itself.
– Many provisions can be amended by a special majority of Parliament alone.

The Constitution of India is considered both rigid and flexible due to the different methods of amendment specified in Article 368, as well as provisions that can be amended by a simple majority (though technically not considered amendments under Article 368).

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14. Nabhah Sprsam Diptam is the motto of

Nabhah Sprsam Diptam is the motto of

Central Industrial Security Force

Indian Air Force

ISRO

Indian Navy

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Answer is Wrong!

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UPSC NDA-1 – 2016

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“Nabhah Sprsam Diptam” (नभः स्पृशं दीप्तम्) is the motto of the Indian Air Force (IAF).

– The motto translates to “Touching the sky with glory”.
– It is taken from verse 24, Chapter 11 of the Bhagavad Gita, which is part of the Vishvarupa Darshana (the vision of the cosmic form). Lord Krishna shows Arjuna his divine universal form, and the phrase describes how the cosmic form reaches the sky with glory.

The mottos of the other forces are:
– Indian Navy: “Sham No Varunah” (May the Lord of the oceans be auspicious unto us).
– Indian Army: “Seva Paramo Dharma” (Service is the ultimate duty).
– CISF: “Sanrakshan aur Suraksha” (Protection and Security).

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15. Which of the following best explains the stated broad vision and aspir

Which of the following best explains the stated broad vision and aspirations of the Twelfth Five Year Plan (2012 – 2017) ?

Faster, Sustainable and More Inclusive Growth

Modernisation of Industries and Strengthening Infrastructure

Enhancing Agricultural and Rural Incomes

Checking Inflation and Strengthening non-economic variables like Nutritional Requirements, Health and Family Planning

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Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC NDA-1 – 2016

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The stated broad vision and aspirations of the Twelfth Five Year Plan, which ran from 2012 to 2017, was “Faster, Sustainable and More Inclusive Growth”.

– The 12th Plan aimed for a higher growth rate than the previous plans, while also ensuring that the growth was environmentally sustainable and socially inclusive.
– “Faster” referred to achieving a higher average GDP growth rate.
– “Sustainable” included environmental sustainability and long-term resource management.
– “More Inclusive” aimed at reducing poverty, inequality, and regional disparities, and improving access to essential services like education, health, and employment.

The Five Year Plans in India were formulated by the Planning Commission (now replaced by NITI Aayog) and outlined the government’s development strategy and objectives for a five-year period. The 12th Plan was the last of the traditional Five Year Plans.

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16. Which one of the following is not a feature of the Nehru-Mahalanobis m

Which one of the following is not a feature of the Nehru-Mahalanobis model of development strategy ?

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Development of capital goods industries

Major involvement of the State in the economy

Industrial deregulation and disinvestment in the public sector

Enhancing the scope and importance of the public sector

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Answer is Wrong!

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UPSC NDA-1 – 2016

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The Nehru-Mahalanobis model, which formed the basis of India’s Second Five-Year Plan (1956-1961), was characterized by a strong emphasis on heavy industrialization, a significant role for the state, and expansion of the public sector. Industrial deregulation and disinvestment in the public sector are features associated with the economic reforms of the 1990s, which were a departure from the Nehru-Mahalanobis approach.

– The model focused on rapid growth through the development of basic and heavy industries (capital goods industries).
– It advocated for a command economy framework with major state intervention and planning.
– The public sector was assigned a leading role in economic development.
– Industrial deregulation and disinvestment are policies aimed at reducing state control and shrinking the public sector, which are antithetical to the Nehru-Mahalanobis model.

P.C. Mahalanobis was a statistician who developed the economic model adopted for the Second Five-Year Plan. This period marked a shift towards state-led industrialization, contrasting with the earlier focus on agriculture and irrigation in the First Five-Year Plan.

17. The Election Commission recognizes a political party as a national par

The Election Commission recognizes a political party as a national party if

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1. it secures at least six percent of the total valid votes polled in four or more States in a general election to the Lok Sabha or to the State Legislative Assemblies.
2. it wins at least four seats in a general election to the Lok Sabha from any State or States.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC NDA-1 – 2016

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Option C is correct because the first criterion for a political party to be recognized as a National Party by the Election Commission of India requires fulfilling both conditions mentioned in statement 1 and statement 2 simultaneously.

– Statement 1 describes securing at least six percent of the total valid votes polled in four or more States in a general election to the Lok Sabha or to the State Legislative Assemblies.
– Statement 2 describes winning at least four seats in a general election to the Lok Sabha from any State or States.
– According to Election Commission rules, one of the ways to be recognised as a National Party is to meet both the condition in statement 1 AND the condition in statement 2 (Criterion 1: 6% vote share in 4+ states + 4 LS seats).

There are other criteria for National Party recognition as well:
– Winning at least two percent of the total seats in the Lok Sabha (currently 11 seats) from at least three different States.
– Being recognised as a State party in at least four States.
The question focuses specifically on the first criterion as broken down into the two statements.

18. Which of the following are the features of Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yoj

Which of the following are the features of Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana?

1. Ensuring financial inclusion of the poor
2. Enhancing financial literacy
3. Provision for accidental insurance to account holders
4. Allowing bank accounts with zero balance

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

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1 and 4 only

1, 2 and 3 only

2 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC NDA-1 – 2016

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The correct answer is D) 1, 2, 3 and 4.

– Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) is a national mission launched by the Government of India aimed at financial inclusion.
– Feature 1 (Ensuring financial inclusion of the poor): This is the primary objective of PMJDY, seeking to provide access to financial services like banking, remittances, insurance, and pension to the unbanked population.
– Feature 2 (Enhancing financial literacy): Financial literacy and credit counseling are integral parts of the scheme to empower account holders to effectively use financial services.
– Feature 3 (Provision for accidental insurance to account holders): PMJDY accounts came with a free accidental death insurance cover (initially Rs. 1 lakh, later enhanced) for the RuPay debit cardholders.
– Feature 4 (Allowing bank accounts with zero balance): A key aspect of the scheme was that accounts could be opened with zero initial deposit, making it accessible to everyone, especially the poor.
– All four listed statements are indeed features of the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana.

Launched in August 2014, PMJDY aims to provide universal access to banking facilities starting with a basic bank account. Other benefits included overdraft facility after satisfactory operation of the account and direct benefit transfer (DBT) linkage.

19. Who among the following is the founder of the ‘Bachpan Bachao

Who among the following is the founder of the ‘Bachpan Bachao Andolan’?

Shantha Sinha

Kailash Satyarthi

Aruna Roy

Anil Agarwal

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Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC NDA-1 – 2016

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The correct answer is B) Kailash Satyarthi.

– Kailash Satyarthi is a renowned Indian social reformer who has been actively campaigning against child labour, child trafficking, and child servitude for decades.
– He founded the Bachpan Bachao Andolan (BBA – Save the Childhood Movement) in 1980.
– For his work towards child rights and education, he was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2014, jointly with Malala Yousafzai.

Shantha Sinha is a prominent anti-child labour activist and was formerly the Chairperson of the National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR). Aruna Roy is a political and social activist who founded the Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan (MKSS). Anil Agarwal (deceased) was an environmentalist and founder of the Centre for Science and Environment (CSE). While all are significant figures in social activism, Kailash Satyarthi is specifically the founder of Bachpan Bachao Andolan.

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20. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha may resign his office by writing, address

The Speaker of the Lok Sabha may resign his office by writing, addressed to the

President of India

Prime Minister of India

Vice President of India

Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha

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Answer is Wrong!

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UPSC NDA-1 – 2016

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The correct answer is D) Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

– Article 94 of the Constitution of India deals with the vacation, resignation, and removal of the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the House of the People (Lok Sabha).
– As per Article 94(b), the Speaker may resign his office by writing addressed to the Deputy Speaker. Similarly, the Deputy Speaker resigns by writing addressed to the Speaker.
– The Speaker and Deputy Speaker are internal office holders of the Lok Sabha and their resignation process is designed to maintain continuity within the House leadership.

The Speaker is the principal presiding officer of the Lok Sabha. The office of the Speaker is independent and impartial. The Deputy Speaker performs the duties of the Speaker’s office when it is vacant or when the Speaker is absent from the sitting of the House.

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