UPSC IAS Archives

21. With reference to the ‘Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act

With reference to the ‘Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 (PBPT Act)’, consider the following statements:

1. A property transaction is not treated as a benami transaction if the owner of the property is not aware of the transaction.
2. Properties held benami are liable for confiscation by the Government.
3. The Act provides for three authorities for investigations but does not provide for any appellate mechanism.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”1 and 3 only” option4=”2 and 3 only” correct=”option2″]

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UPSC IAS – 2017

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Statement 1 is incorrect. A benami transaction, as defined by the Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 (PBPT Act) as amended in 2016, typically involves a property held by one person (the benamidar) for the benefit of another person (the beneficial owner). The definition focuses on the *nature* of the transaction and the *real* ownership, not whether the benamidar is aware that the transaction is legally considered ‘benami’. Awareness might be relevant in proving intent or defence, but the transaction can still be treated as benami regardless of the benamidar’s full understanding of its legal implications.
Statement 2 is correct. The PBPT Act explicitly provides for the confiscation of benami properties by the Adjudicating Authority, after due process, once the property is determined to be benami.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The amended PBPT Act establishes various authorities for investigation (Initiating Officer, Approving Authority) and adjudication (Adjudicating Authority). Crucially, the Act also provides for an appellate mechanism, the Appellate Tribunal, to hear appeals against the orders of the Adjudicating Authority. Further appeals can be made to the High Court.

– The PBPT Act deals with property held in the name of one person where the consideration has been paid by another person, with certain exceptions.
– Benami properties are subject to confiscation by the government.
– The Act provides for investigative, adjudicating, and appellate authorities.

The PBPT Act was originally passed in 1988 but remained largely ineffective. It was significantly amended in 2016, renaming it the Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 (as amended in 2016) and strengthening its provisions regarding definition, authorities, and penalties. The amendment aimed to curb black money and illegal property holdings.

22. At one of the places in India, if you stand on the seashore and watch

At one of the places in India, if you stand on the seashore and watch the sea, you will find that the sea water recedes from the shore line a few kilometres and comes back to the shore, twice a day, and you can actually walk on the sea floor when the water recedes. This unique phenomenon is seen at

[amp_mcq option1=”Bhavnagar” option2=”Bheemunipatnam” option3=”Chandipur” option4=”Nagapattinam” correct=”option3″]

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UPSC IAS – 2017

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The correct answer is C, which is Chandipur.

Chandipur beach in Odisha is famous for its unique phenomenon where the sea water recedes significantly (up to 1-5 kilometers, depending on the tide) during low tide, allowing visitors to literally walk on the seabed and observe marine life. The water then returns during high tide. This happens twice a day.

This phenomenon is a result of the high tidal range in the region. Among the given options, Chandipur is particularly well-known and marketed for this specific characteristic. While other locations like Bhavnagar in the Gulf of Khambhat also experience high tides and receding water, the description of walking ‘a few kilometers’ on the exposed seabed is most famously associated with Chandipur, often called the ‘hide-and-seek beach’. Bheemunipatnam and Nagapattinam on the eastern coast generally have lower tidal ranges compared to Chandipur or locations on the western coast like the Gulf of Khambhat.

23. The term ‘Digital Single Market Strategy’ seen in the news refers to

The term ‘Digital Single Market Strategy’ seen in the news refers to

[amp_mcq option1=”ASEAN” option2=”BRICS” option3=”EU” option4=”G20″ correct=”option3″]

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UPSC IAS – 2017

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The correct answer is C, referring to the EU.

The Digital Single Market Strategy is a policy initiative by the European Union aimed at making the EU’s single market fit for the digital age by removing regulatory barriers and creating a seamless online environment across member states.

The EU has been actively working on establishing a Digital Single Market to boost its economy, foster innovation, and provide consumers with greater access to online goods and services across borders. This strategy involves legislative proposals related to e-commerce, digital contracts, cybersecurity, copyright, and platform regulation, among others. This initiative is specific to the European Union’s integration efforts.

24. Consider the following statements: With reference to the Constitution

Consider the following statements:
With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute limitations upon

1. legislative function.
2. executive function.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option4″]

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UPSC IAS – 2017

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The correct answer is D, stating that neither statement 1 nor statement 2 is correct regarding DPSPs as limitations.

Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) are guiding principles for the state (both legislative and executive) to follow in the governance of the country. They are aspirational goals aimed at establishing a welfare state.

Unlike Fundamental Rights, which are enforceable by courts and act as limitations on the power of the state, DPSPs are non-justiciable. They are not legally binding constraints on legislative or executive functions. Instead, they serve as positive instructions or recommendations to the state organs to be considered while making laws and implementing policies. Therefore, they do not constitute *limitations* in the legal sense.

25. Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in

Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in

[amp_mcq option1=”Federalism” option2=”Democratic decentralisation” option3=”Administrative delegation” option4=”Direct democracy” correct=”option2″]

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UPSC IAS – 2017

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The correct answer is B, stating that local self-government is best explained as an exercise in democratic decentralisation.

Democratic decentralisation is the process of transferring power, authority, and resources from central or state governments to elected local bodies, empowering them to make decisions and manage affairs at the local level. Local self-government bodies like Panchayats and Municipalities in India are prime examples of this principle in practice.

While related to the broader concept of power distribution, federalism typically refers to the division of power between the union and state governments. Administrative delegation involves assigning tasks but not necessarily the autonomy to govern. Direct democracy involves citizens participating directly in decision-making, which is different from the representative structure of local self-government bodies where elected representatives make decisions on behalf of the people. Thus, democratic decentralisation is the most fitting description.

26. The Trade Disputes Act of 1929 provided for

The Trade Disputes Act of 1929 provided for

[amp_mcq option1=”the participation of workers in the management of industries.” option2=”arbitrary powers to the management to quell industrial disputes.” option3=”an intervention by the British Court in the event of a trade dispute.” option4=”a system of tribunals and a ban on strikes.” correct=”option4″]

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UPSC IAS – 2017

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The correct answer is D, which states that the Trade Disputes Act of 1929 provided for a system of tribunals and a ban on strikes.

The Trade Disputes Act of 1929 was enacted by the British government in India primarily to suppress trade union activities and restrict the right to strike. It introduced a system of Courts of Inquiry and Boards of Conciliation (acting as tribunals) for settling disputes and made strikes illegal in public utility services unless a mandatory notice period was given. It also declared sympathetic strikes illegal.

Option A is incorrect as the Act was restrictive towards workers’ rights, not promoting participation in management. Option B is partially true in that it gave powers to intervene but ‘arbitrary powers to management’ is not the precise focus; it gave powers to the government and established mechanisms for dispute resolution and restriction. Option C is incorrect; while the British legal framework underpinned the Act, the primary mechanism was through designated boards/tribunals, not direct intervention by British Courts for every dispute. Option D best captures the essence of the Act’s provisions: creating tribunals for dispute resolution and imposing significant restrictions/bans on strikes.

27. In the context of solving pollution problems, what is/are the advantag

In the context of solving pollution problems, what is/are the advantage/advantages of bioremediation technique?

1. It is a technique for cleaning up pollution by enhancing the same biodegradation process that occurs in nature.
2. Any contaminant with heavy metals such as cadmium and lead can be readily and completely treated by bioremediation using microorganisms.
3. Genetic engineering can be used to create microorganisms specifically designed for bioremediation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 and 3 only” option3=”1 and 3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option3″]

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UPSC IAS – 2017

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The correct answer is C, stating that statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Bioremediation is a waste management technique that uses organisms, primarily microorganisms, to neutralize pollutants in a contaminated site by degrading them into less toxic or non-toxic substances. Genetic engineering can enhance the capabilities of these microorganisms for specific bioremediation tasks.

Statement 1 accurately describes bioremediation as enhancing natural biodegradation processes to clean up pollution. Statement 3 is correct; genetic engineering can be employed to develop microorganisms with improved pollutant degradation efficiency or resistance to toxic environments, specifically designed for bioremediation applications (e.g., genetically engineered bacteria). Statement 2 is incorrect. While bioremediation is effective for many organic contaminants, heavy metals like cadmium and lead are elemental and cannot be degraded by microorganisms. Bioremediation techniques might be used to immobilize or transform them into less mobile forms (e.g., through biosorption or bioprecipitation), but they are not ‘readily and completely treated’ by degradation.

28. Who among the following was/were associated with the introduction of R

Who among the following was/were associated with the introduction of Ryotwari Settlement in India during the British rule ?

Lord Cornwallis
Alexander Read
Thomas Munro

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”1 and 3 only” option3=”2 and 3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2017

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The correct answer is C, which states that Alexander Read and Thomas Munro were associated with the Ryotwari Settlement.

The Ryotwari system was a land revenue system where the British government collected revenue directly from the cultivators (ryots). Alexander Read first experimented with this system in parts of Madras Presidency in the late 18th century, and Thomas Munro later significantly developed and implemented it widely across Madras Presidency and other parts of Southern India in the early 19th century.

Lord Cornwallis is associated with the Permanent Settlement (Zamindari system), which was introduced in Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa, where revenue was collected from Zamindars who were recognized as owners of the land. He was not associated with the Ryotwari system.

30. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Monetar

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) ?

1. It decides the RBI’s benchmark interest rates.
2. It is a 12-member body including the Governor of RBI and is reconstituted every year.
3. It functions under the chairmanship of the Union Finance Minister.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”1 and 2 only” option3=”3 only” option4=”2 and 3 only” correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2017

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The correct answer is A, stating that only statement 1 is correct.

The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) was established to fix the benchmark policy interest rate (repo rate) to achieve the inflation target set by the government.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The MPC in India is a six-member body. Three members are from the RBI (including the Governor, who is the ex-officio Chairperson) and three members are appointed by the Central Government. The terms of government-appointed members are typically fixed (e.g., four years) and not necessarily reconstituted every year. Statement 3 is incorrect; the MPC functions under the chairmanship of the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India, not the Union Finance Minister.