UPSC IAS Archives

1. The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legis

The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College.
Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State.
The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.
The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one

Only two

Only three

All four

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2023

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The correct option is A.

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Electoral College for the election of the President consists only of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States (including Delhi and Puducherry). Nominated members in any House of Parliament or State Legislative Assemblies are not included in the Electoral College.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The value of the vote of an MLA of a State is calculated by the formula: (Total population of the State (as per 1971 census) / Total number of elected members of the State Legislative Assembly) × 1000. Thus, for a given population, a higher number of elective Assembly seats (denominator) results in a *lower* value of vote for each MLA, not higher.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Based on the 1971 census figures and current number of MLAs, the value of vote of an MLA in Kerala is approximately 152.48, while that of an MLA in Madhya Pradesh is approximately 130.5. Therefore, the value of vote of an MLA of Kerala is greater than that of Madhya Pradesh.
Statement 4 is correct. The value of vote is directly proportional to the ratio of total population to the number of elective seats (multiplied by 1/1000). Using 1971 census data, Puducherry population was 471,707 with 30 elected seats, giving a ratio of ~15723.56 and a vote value of ~15.72. Arunachal Pradesh population was 467,511 with 60 elected seats, giving a ratio of ~7791.85 and a vote value of ~7.79. The ratio for Puducherry is greater, and consequently, the value of vote for a Puducherry MLA is higher than that for an Arunachal Pradesh MLA.

The population figures used for calculating the value of votes of MLAs are based on the 1971 census to maintain uniformity and avoid disproportionate weightage due to differential population growth rates across states. This provision was initially frozen until the year 2000 by the 42nd Amendment Act and further extended until the first census taken after the year 2026 by the 84th Amendment Act.

2. Consider the following statements: 1. In India, the Biodiversity Man

Consider the following statements:

1. In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol.
2. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2023

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The correct option is C.

Statement 1 is correct. India is a party to the Nagoya Protocol on Access and Benefit Sharing (ABS). The Protocol is implemented in India through the Biological Diversity Act, 2002. The Act mandates a three-tier structure: National Biodiversity Authority (NBA), State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs), and Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) at the local level. BMCs are essential for implementing the ABS mechanism at the grassroots level, particularly for access to biological resources and associated traditional knowledge within their local jurisdiction, thus being key to realizing the Nagoya Protocol’s objectives.
Statement 2 is correct. The Biological Diversity Act, 2002 and the Biological Diversity Rules, 2004, specify the functions of BMCs. These include documenting local biodiversity, promoting conservation and sustainable use, and playing a role in access and benefit sharing related to biological resources and traditional knowledge. Rule 22 of the Rules explicitly grants BMCs the power to “levy charges by way of collection fees from any person for accessing data or information held by the Committee including from commercial utilization.” Further, Section 7 of the Act requires obtaining prior intimation to the BMC for access to biological resources for commercial use within their area, allowing BMCs to determine access and benefit-sharing conditions.

The Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) are constituted by every local body within its area. They consist of a Chairman and not more than six persons nominated by the local body, of whom not less than one third should be women and not less than 50% should be from the Scheduled Castes or the Scheduled Tribes.

3. Which one of the following countries has been suffering from decades o

Which one of the following countries has been suffering from decades of civil strife and food shortages and was in news in the recent past for its very severe famine?

Angola

Costa Rica

Ecuador

Somalia

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2023

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The correct option is D.

Somalia has been plagued by decades of civil war, political instability, absence of a strong central government, clan conflicts, and recurring droughts. These factors have led to widespread food insecurity, displacement, and severe famines over the years, making it a country frequently in news for such crises. The description directly matches the situation in Somalia.

Angola experienced a prolonged civil war that ended in 2002, leading to humanitarian challenges, but subsequent issues differ in nature and scale from the chronic large-scale famine described. Costa Rica and Ecuador are relatively stable countries in Latin America and do not typically face civil strife and severe famine of the kind described.

4. Consider the following statements : 1. According to the Constitution

Consider the following statements :

1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances.

2. The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention.

3. According the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence.

How many of the above statement are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2023

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The correct option is B.

Statement 1 is correct. Article 355 of the Constitution of India states that it is the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance and to ensure that the government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 22(1) guarantees the right to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner of one’s choice. However, Article 22(3)(b) states that this right does not apply to a person arrested or detained under any law providing for preventive detention. Thus, the Constitution itself exempts the State from the obligation under Article 22(1) to provide legal counsel in cases of preventive detention. While other provisions or laws (like free legal aid under Article 39A) might apply, the constitutional right under Article 22(1) is specifically not available.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The Prevention of Terrorism Act (POTA), 2002, contained a controversial provision (Section 32) which allowed confessions made by an accused person before a police officer of the rank of Superintendent of Police or higher to be admissible in evidence, unlike the general rule under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 which makes confessions before police officers inadmissible. POTA was repealed in 2004.

Preventive detention laws are an exception to the general rule regarding personal liberty and due process. Article 22(4)-(7) provides safeguards against arbitrary preventive detention, such as the requirement for review by an advisory board.

5. Consider the following statements : Statement-1: According to the Uni

Consider the following statements :

Statement-1: According to the United Nations ‘World Water Development Report, 2022’. India extracts more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater withdrawal each year.

Statement-II : India needs to extract more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater each year to satisfy the drinking water and sanitation needs of almost 18% of world’s population living in its territory.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2023

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Statement-I is correct regarding India’s significant groundwater extraction as highlighted by the UN report. However, Statement-II is incorrect because the primary reason for India’s high groundwater withdrawal is for irrigation, not solely for drinking water and sanitation needs.

– Statement I is correct: Reports like the UN World Water Development Report 2022 consistently identify India as the largest user of groundwater globally, accounting for roughly a quarter of the world’s total withdrawal.
– Statement II is incorrect: While satisfying the needs of a large population for drinking water and sanitation is important, the overwhelming majority (estimated at 80-90%) of groundwater extraction in India is for agricultural irrigation to grow food crops. The withdrawal for drinking water and sanitation, though critical, constitutes a much smaller portion of the total.

Unsustainable groundwater extraction, driven primarily by agricultural needs and facilitated by subsidized electricity and water pumps, is a major environmental challenge in India, leading to declining water tables and water stress in many regions. Addressing this requires reforms in agricultural water use practices, pricing, and management.

6. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: India’s public sector

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: India’s public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care.

Statement-II: Under India’s decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2023

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Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct individually, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I. India’s public healthcare system does have a predominant focus on curative care, and health is indeed a State subject. However, the State being primarily responsible for health services doesn’t inherently lead to a focus on curative care; this focus stems from historical development, resource allocation patterns, disease burden, and infrastructure priorities.

– Statement I is correct: India’s public health system has historically prioritized and invested more in curative care (treating illnesses) through hospitals and clinics, compared to robust preventive, promotive, and rehabilitative health services, although efforts are being made to change this focus.
– Statement II is correct: Under India’s federal structure, Public Health and Sanitation is listed in the State List of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, making States primarily responsible for organizing and delivering health services.
– The decentralization of health as a State subject provides states autonomy but doesn’t explain the *reason* for the focus on curative care. This focus is driven by historical context, disease profile, infrastructure development priorities, and resource constraints.

Improving the balance between curative, preventive, promotive, and rehabilitative care is a key goal of India’s National Health Policy. The focus on strengthening primary healthcare, including wellness centres and public health initiatives, aims to shift the balance towards prevention and promotion.

7. Consider the following statements: 1. The Self-Help Group (SHG) progr

Consider the following statements:

1. The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was originally initiated by the State Bank of India by providing microcredit to the financially deprived.

2. In an SHG, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member takes.

3. The Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial Banks support SHGs.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2023

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Statements 2 and 3 are correct, while statement 1 is incorrect. The SHG programme evolved from various initiatives, not solely initiated by the State Bank of India.

– Statement 1 is incorrect. While SBI and other banks have been actively involved, the SHG movement in India was fostered by various actors, including NGOs, NABARD (which spearheaded the SHG-Bank Linkage Programme), and various government poverty alleviation schemes. It was not originally initiated *solely* by SBI.
– Statement 2 is correct. A core principle of SHGs is collective responsibility or joint liability. Members guarantee each other’s loans, which encourages timely repayment and peer pressure.
– Statement 3 is correct. The SHG-Bank Linkage Programme is implemented by commercial banks (including Scheduled Commercial Banks), Regional Rural Banks (RRBs), and Cooperative Banks, linking SHGs to formal financial institutions.

The SHG-Bank Linkage Programme, widely recognized as a successful model for financial inclusion, has been instrumental in providing microcredit and other financial services to poor households, particularly women, in rural and semi-urban areas of India. NABARD has been a facilitating agency in this programme since the early 1990s.

8. In the context of finance, the term ‘beta’ refers to

In the context of finance, the term ‘beta’ refers to

the process of simultaneous buying and selling of an asset from different platforms

an investment strategy of a portfolio manager to balance risk versus reward

a type of systemic risk that arises where perfect hedging is not possible

a numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock to changes in the overall stock market.

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2023

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In finance, ‘beta’ is a statistical measure that quantifies the sensitivity of an asset’s (like a stock) returns to the fluctuations of a relevant market index (like the overall stock market). It indicates the asset’s systematic risk relative to the market.

– Beta (β) is a measure of systematic risk, which is the risk inherent to the entire market or market segment.
– A beta of 1 implies the stock’s price moves in line with the market.
– A beta greater than 1 suggests the stock is more volatile than the market.
– A beta less than 1 suggests the stock is less volatile than the market.
– A beta of 0 implies no correlation with the market.

Beta is a key component in the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM), which is used to calculate the expected return of an asset. It helps investors understand how much additional risk they are taking by investing in a specific stock compared to investing in the overall market. Beta does not measure unsystematic (or specific) risk, which can be diversified away.

9. With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the follow

With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements :

1. It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using US dollar or SWIFT system.
2. A digital currency can be distributed with condition programmed into it such as a time-frame for spending it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2023

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Both statements are correct. Central Bank Digital Currencies (CBDCs) offer capabilities that can bypass traditional international payment systems like SWIFT and can potentially incorporate features like programmability.

– CBDCs allow for direct digital payment rails that do not necessarily rely on intermediary banks or existing international systems like SWIFT. This can facilitate faster and potentially cheaper cross-border transactions without requiring conversion to a specific reserve currency like the US dollar for routing.
– CBDCs can be designed with built-in rules or conditions, making them ‘programmable’. This could include setting time limits for spending (expiry dates), restricting usage to specific goods or services, or triggering payments upon fulfillment of certain conditions.

CBDCs are digital forms of a country’s fiat currency issued by the central bank. They are distinct from cryptocurrencies like Bitcoin (which are decentralized) and stablecoins (which are typically issued by private entities and pegged to an asset). Many central banks globally are researching and piloting CBDCs for various potential benefits, including payment system efficiency, financial inclusion, and monetary policy implementation.

10. According to the ‘Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSM

According to the ‘Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006, the ‘medium enterprises’ are those with investments in plant and machinery between ₹ 15 crore and ₹ 25 crore.

2. All bank loans to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2023

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Statement 1 is incorrect as per the definitions of ‘medium enterprises’ under the MSMED Act, 2006 (including relevant notifications before the 2020 revision). Statement 2 is correct regarding the priority sector status of bank loans to MSMEs.

– Under the MSMED Act, 2006 (prior to the 2020 revision), Medium Enterprises were defined based on investment in Plant and Machinery/Equipment, with limits generally being > ₹5 crore and <= ₹10 crore for manufacturing, and > ₹2 crore and <= ₹5 crore for services. The range ₹15 crore to ₹25 crore does not match these official definitions. - All bank loans extended to Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) generally qualify as priority sector lending as per Reserve Bank of India (RBI) guidelines. This is a policy measure to ensure adequate credit flow to these sectors.

The MSMED Act, 2006 provided the legal framework for classifying and promoting MSMEs in India. The definitions were revised in 2020, introducing a composite criterion based on both investment and annual turnover, and significantly increasing the thresholds for classification. Priority Sector Lending guidelines mandate banks to lend a certain portion of their total credit to specified sectors, including MSMEs, agriculture, education, housing, etc.