UPSC IAS Archives

11. With reference to river Teesta, consider the following statements: 1

With reference to river Teesta, consider the following statements:

1. The source of river Teesta is the same as that of Brahmaputra but it flows through Sikkim.
2. River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and it is a tributary of river Teesta.
3. River Teesta flows into Bay of Bengal on the border of India and Bangladesh.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 3 only

2 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

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UPSC IAS – 2017

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Statement 2 is correct, while statements 1 and 3 are incorrect.

– Statement 1 is incorrect because the source of the river Teesta (Tso Lhamo Lake in Sikkim) is different from that of the Brahmaputra (Chemayungdung Glacier region in Tibet).
– Statement 2 is correct. The Rangeet River is a major tributary of the Teesta River, and it originates in Sikkim.
– Statement 3 is incorrect. The Teesta River flows through India (Sikkim, West Bengal) and then enters Bangladesh. In Bangladesh, it joins the Brahmaputra River (known as Jamuna in Bangladesh), and the combined flow then goes into the Padma River (main channel of the Ganges), eventually flowing into the Bay of Bengal. It does not flow into the Bay of Bengal directly on the border of India and Bangladesh.

The Teesta river dispute between India and Bangladesh is a significant issue concerning water sharing of the river.

12. Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS) ?

Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS) ?

Resident Indian citizens only

Persons of age from 21 to 55 only

All State Government employees joining the services after the date of notification by the respective State Governments

All Central Government employees including those of Armed Forces joining the services on or after 1st April, 2004

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The National Pension System (NPS) is available to a wide range of subscribers.
Option A is incorrect as Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) can also open NPS accounts.
Option B is incorrect as the current age limit for joining NPS is between 18 and 70 years.
Option C is correct. NPS was initially made mandatory for new central government employees (except Armed Forces) joining on or after 1st April, 2004. Subsequently, most State Governments adopted NPS for their employees, making it mandatory for those joining service after a specific date notified by the respective State Government. This option accurately describes a major category of individuals for whom NPS is mandatory and who can join.
Option D is incorrect as employees of the Armed Forces are specifically excluded from the mandatory NPS applicable to other Central Government employees joining on or after 1st April, 2004. They are covered by separate pension schemes.

– NPS is open to Indian citizens (resident and NRI) aged 18-70.
– It is mandatory for most central government employees (except Armed Forces) joining after 01.04.2004.
– Most State Governments have adopted NPS for their employees joining after a specified date.

Apart from government employees, NPS is also open to self-employed professionals and other individuals. Subscribers contribute to their individual pension accounts (Tier I) which are managed by professional fund managers regulated by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA). A voluntary Tier II account is also available.

13. Consider the following statements: 1. The Nuclear Security Summits a

Consider the following statements:

1. The Nuclear Security Summits are periodically held under the aegis of the United Nations.
2. The International Panel on Fissile Materials is an organ of International Atomic Energy Agency.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

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UPSC IAS – 2017

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Statement 1 is incorrect. The Nuclear Security Summits (NSS) were a series of global summits initiated by then-US President Barack Obama to strengthen measures to prevent nuclear terrorism. They were held biennially from 2010 to 2016 (Washington D.C. 2010, Seoul 2012, The Hague 2014, Washington D.C. 2016). While participants included heads of state/government from many UN member states, these summits were not held *under the aegis* of the United Nations. They were independent, high-level political gatherings focused specifically on nuclear security.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The International Panel on Fissile Materials (IPFM) is an independent group of arms control and non-proliferation experts from various countries. It is not an organ of the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA). The IAEA is an intergovernmental organization within the UN family, responsible for promoting the safe, secure, and peaceful use of nuclear technologies and providing safeguards against nuclear proliferation. The IPFM conducts research and analysis on fissile materials (highly enriched uranium and plutonium) but operates independently.

– Nuclear Security Summits were independent political summits, not part of the UN system.
– The International Panel on Fissile Materials is an independent expert group, not part of the IAEA.

The IAEA plays a crucial role in international nuclear security by establishing guidelines and standards, providing assistance to states, and verifying that nuclear material is not diverted for weapons purposes. The IPFM contributes to the public understanding and policy debate on nuclear disarmament and non-proliferation issues, particularly concerning fissile materials.

14. The term ‘Domestic Content Requirement’ is sometimes seen in the news

The term ‘Domestic Content Requirement’ is sometimes seen in the news with reference to

Developing solar power production in our country

Granting licences to foreign T.V. channels in our country

Exporting our food products to other countries

Permitting foreign educational institutions to set up their campuses in our country

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The term ‘Domestic Content Requirement’ (DCR) refers to a government policy that mandates a certain percentage of goods or services used in a project or product must be domestically produced or sourced. This is a trade-related measure often used to promote domestic industry, job creation, and technological development. In India, DCR has been notably implemented and debated, particularly in the context of developing solar power production under schemes like the National Solar Mission. The policy required solar power projects benefiting from government support to use domestically manufactured solar cells and modules for a portion of their capacity.

– Domestic Content Requirement (DCR) mandates sourcing goods or services locally.
– DCR has been a prominent policy feature in India’s solar power sector development.

DCR policies can sometimes be controversial and may face challenges under international trade agreements, such as those of the World Trade Organization (WTO), if they are deemed discriminatory against foreign producers. India’s solar DCR policy, for example, was challenged at the WTO by the United States.

15. The object of the Butler Committee of 1927 was to

The object of the Butler Committee of 1927 was to

Define the jurisdiction of the Central and Provincial Governments.

Define the powers of the Secretary of State for India.

Impose censorship on national press.

Improve the relationship between the Government of India and the Indian States.

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The Butler Committee, officially known as the Indian States Committee, was appointed in 1927 by the British government, headed by Sir Harcourt Butler. Its primary mandate was to examine the relationship between the Paramount Power (the British Crown) and the Indian Princely States, and to make recommendations for the satisfactory settlement of the financial and economic relations between British India and the States. The overarching objective was to improve and clarify the complex and often strained relationship between the government of British India and the numerous semi-autonomous princely states. Option D accurately reflects this main object.

– The Butler Committee was the Indian States Committee of 1927.
– Its focus was on the relationship between British India and the Princely States.

The Committee’s report (1929) asserted the paramountcy of the British Crown and stated that the states could not be transferred to a future self-governing British India without their agreement. This concept of paramountcy and the committee’s recommendations played a significant role in the discussions regarding the future integration of princely states into independent India.

16. In the context of mitigating the impending global warming due to anthr

In the context of mitigating the impending global warming due to anthropogenic carbon dioxide, which of the following can be the potential sites for carbon sequestration ?

1. Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams
2. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs
3. Subterranean deep saline formations

Select the correct answer using the code given below

1 and 2 only

3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

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Carbon sequestration is the process of capturing and storing atmospheric carbon dioxide. Geological sequestration involves injecting CO2 into deep underground geological formations. All three mentioned sites are considered potential locations for this process.
Statement 1 is correct. Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams have pore spaces within the coal matrix where CO2 can be stored. Injecting CO2 can displace adsorbed methane, potentially offering enhanced coal bed methane recovery while sequestering CO2.
Statement 2 is correct. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs are geological formations that previously held hydrocarbons for millions of years, indicating they are well-sealed and suitable for trapping fluids. They are prime candidates for CO2 injection for storage, often combined with Enhanced Oil Recovery (EOR) or Enhanced Gas Recovery (EGR) techniques.
Statement 3 is correct. Subterranean deep saline formations are porous rock layers saturated with highly saline water. These formations are vast and globally abundant, offering the largest potential storage capacity for CO2 compared to coal seams or depleted reservoirs. The CO2 dissolves in the saline water or is trapped in pore spaces.

– Geological carbon sequestration involves injecting CO2 into suitable underground rock formations.
– Abandoned coal seams, depleted oil/gas reservoirs, and deep saline formations are recognized potential sites.

Other potential sites for carbon sequestration include basalt formations and organic-rich shales. Alongside geological sequestration, other methods include terrestrial sequestration (forests, soils) and ocean sequestration (less explored/favoured due to environmental concerns). Carbon capture and storage (CCS) technologies are being developed and deployed globally as a means to mitigate climate change.

17. Consider the following statements : 1. The Factories Act, 1881 was p

Consider the following statements :

1. The Factories Act, 1881 was passed with a view to fix the wages of industrial workers and to allow the workers to form trade unions.
2. N.M. Lokhande was a pioneer in organizing the labour movement in British India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

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Statement 1 is incorrect. The Factories Act, 1881, was the first major legislation in British India to regulate factory labour, but its scope was limited. It primarily focused on improving the working conditions of children (setting minimum age for employment, limiting working hours) and providing some basic provisions for health and safety (like fencing of machinery). It did *not* deal with fixing wages or recognize the right to form trade unions. Wage fixing was not a feature of early labour laws, and trade unions were legally recognized much later with the Indian Trade Unions Act, 1926.
Statement 2 is correct. Narayan Meghaji Lokhande (1848-1897) is widely regarded as a pioneer of the labour movement in India. He organized factory workers in Bombay in the late 19th century, advocated for better working conditions (including a weekly holiday), and founded the Bombay Mill Hands Association in 1890, which is considered one of the first labour organizations in India, although not a registered trade union in the modern sense.

– The Factories Act of 1881 was a nascent attempt to regulate factory conditions, mainly for children.
– N.M. Lokhande played a crucial early role in organizing Indian industrial workers.

Subsequent Factories Acts (e.g., 1891, 1911, 1922, 1934) gradually extended regulations to cover more factories, different age groups, and more aspects of working conditions. The labour movement in India grew significantly in the early 20th century, leading to the passage of the Trade Unions Act, 1926.

18. Which of the following are the objectives of ‘National Nutrition Missi

Which of the following are the objectives of ‘National Nutrition Mission’ ?

1. To create awareness relating to malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers.
2. To reduce the incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women.
3. To promote the consumption of millets, coarse cereals and unpolished rice.
4. To promote the consumption of poultry eggs.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 4 only

3 and 4 only

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Statement 1 is correct. Creating awareness related to malnutrition, especially among vulnerable groups like pregnant women and lactating mothers, is a key component of the National Nutrition Mission (POSHAN Abhiyaan) under its Behavioural Change Communication (BCC) and Jan Andolan (Mass Movement) pillars.
Statement 2 is correct. Reducing the incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls, and women is one of the explicit and primary targets/objectives of the National Nutrition Mission.
Statement 3 is correct. While not always listed as a standalone *outcome* objective, promoting consumption of nutritious foods, including traditional and coarse grains like millets and unpolished rice, is a significant part of the dietary diversity promotion strategy under the mission’s BCC activities aimed at improving nutritional intake and combating malnutrition. Given the policy focus on millets etc., this is likely considered an objective under dietary behaviour change.
Statement 4 is incorrect. While eggs are nutritious and might be included in dietary recommendations, promoting the consumption of ‘poultry eggs’ specifically is too narrow and not typically listed as a core objective of the National Nutrition Mission itself, compared to the broader goals like reducing anaemia or promoting diverse diets including specific food *groups* or traditional grains.

– The National Nutrition Mission aims to reduce stunting, undernutrition, anaemia, and low birth weight.
– Key strategies include awareness generation (BCC), convergence of schemes, and technology adoption.
– Promoting dietary diversity and consumption of nutritious foods is a component of BCC.

The National Nutrition Mission, or POSHAN Abhiyaan, was launched in 2018 to improve nutritional outcomes for children, pregnant women, and lactating mothers. It utilizes a convergent approach, technology, and community participation (Jan Andolan) to achieve its targets.

19. It is possible to produce algae based biofuels, but what is/are the li

It is possible to produce algae based biofuels, but what is/are the likely limitation(s) of developing countries in promoting this industry ?

1. Production of algae based biofuels is possible in seas only and not on continents.
2. Setting up and engineering the algae based biofuel production requires high level of expertise/technology until the construction is completed.
3. Economically viable production necessitates the setting up of large scale facilities which may raise ecological and social concerns.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

3 only

1, 2 and 3

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UPSC IAS – 2017

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Statement 1 is incorrect. Production of algae-based biofuels is possible not only in seas (using marine algae) but also on land (on continents) using freshwater or brackish water in open ponds or closed photobioreactors. Location depends on the type of algae and the cultivation method.
Statement 2 is correct. Setting up and engineering an algae-based biofuel production facility requires significant scientific and technological expertise, especially in areas like strain selection, cultivation optimization, harvesting, and lipid extraction/conversion. Developing countries might face limitations in accessing or developing this high level of specialized knowledge and technology.
Statement 3 is correct. To make algae biofuel production economically competitive with fossil fuels, large-scale facilities are generally required to achieve economies of scale. Setting up such large-scale facilities necessitates significant land and water resources and can potentially raise ecological concerns (e.g., water usage, potential impact on local ecosystems, energy input) and social concerns (e.g., land use conflict, resource competition with food production).

– Algae cultivation is possible on land as well as in the sea.
– Algae biofuel production is technologically complex and requires specialized expertise.
– Economic viability often demands large scale, which can have significant resource implications and raise environmental/social concerns.

Algae-based biofuels are considered a promising renewable energy source due to algae’s high growth rates and ability to grow on non-arable land using non-potable water sources or wastewater. However, current production costs remain high compared to fossil fuels, and scaling up production faces technical, economic, and sustainability challenges.

20. Due to some reasons, if there is a huge fall in the population of spec

Due to some reasons, if there is a huge fall in the population of species of butterflies, what could be its likely consequence/consequences ?

1. Pollination of some plants could be adversely affected.
2. There could be a drastic increase in the fungal infections of some cultivated plants.
3. It could lead to a fall in the population of some species of wasps, spiders and birds.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

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Statement 1 is correct. Butterflies are important pollinators for many flowering plants. A significant decline in their population would directly reduce the pollination services they provide, adversely affecting the reproduction of plants that rely on them.
Statement 2 is incorrect. A fall in the butterfly population is unlikely to cause a drastic increase in fungal infections of cultivated plants. Fungal infections are typically influenced by factors like weather conditions, soil health, plant susceptibility, and the presence of fungal spores, not directly by butterfly populations. While butterfly larvae are herbivores, their impact on plant health is different from fungal pathogens.
Statement 3 is correct. Butterflies, in their various life stages (egg, larva/caterpillar, pupa, adult), serve as a food source for a variety of predators, including insects like wasps and spiders, and numerous bird species. A substantial decrease in the butterfly population would reduce the food availability for these predators, potentially leading to a decline in their populations due to starvation or reduced reproductive success.

– Butterflies act as pollinators and are part of the food chain.
– Changes in prey population can impact predator populations.

Butterflies are often considered indicators of ecosystem health. Their decline can signal broader environmental issues such as habitat loss, pesticide use, and climate change. Conserving butterfly populations is important for biodiversity and ecosystem services like pollination.