UPSC CISF-AC-EXE Archives

41. Which one among the following is not a part of Bomb Detection and Di

Which one among the following is not a part of Bomb Detection and Disposal Squad (BDDS) equipment?

[amp_mcq option1=”Telescopic manipulator” option2=”Bomb blanket” option3=”Deep search metal detector” option4=”Smoke bomb” correct=”option4″]

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The correct option is D) Smoke bomb. Smoke bombs are generally used for creating smoke screens for concealment, signaling, or crowd control, and are not standard equipment used by Bomb Detection and Disposal Squads for the process of detecting, identifying, accessing, rendering safe, recovering, and disposing of explosive devices.

BDDS equipment typically includes specialized tools for remote handling (like telescopic manipulators), protective gear (like bomb blankets and bomb suits), detection devices (like deep search metal detectors, explosive trace detectors, X-ray machines), and tools for rendering devices safe (like disrupters).

Other common BDDS equipment includes remote-controlled vehicles (robots), specialized tools for gaining access (like entry tools), and various types of disrupters (like water cannon disrupters). The focus is on minimizing risk to personnel and safely neutralizing or disposing of explosive threats.

42. Intelligence can be collected from various sources. Which one among th

Intelligence can be collected from various sources. Which one among the following is not a reliable source for collection of intelligence?

[amp_mcq option1=”Images obtained by satellites” option2=”Grapevine communication” option3=”Intercepted communication” option4=”Information obtained through espionage” correct=”option2″]

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Grapevine communication refers to informal transmission of information, rumours, and gossip. While it can sometimes provide leads, the information obtained through grapevine is typically unverified, potentially distorted, and inherently unreliable as a primary source of intelligence. The other options (Satellite images, intercepted communication, espionage) refer to sources and methods that aim to collect factual or sensitive information through technical means or deliberate human effort, which, while requiring analysis and verification, are considered more reliable sources for intelligence gathering compared to informal rumour mills.

Grapevine communication’s lack of structure, source verification, and inherent tendency towards distortion makes it an unreliable source for formal intelligence gathering.

Intelligence agencies categorize sources based on their nature and reliability. Technical sources (like satellite imagery and intercepted communications) and professional human sources (like agents in espionage) are primary means of collecting reliable intelligence. Grapevine communication falls under informal human interaction and is generally treated with caution, requiring extensive cross-verification if used at all.

43. What do we call an occasion when people show that they disagree with s

What do we call an occasion when people show that they disagree with something by standing around a person in authority and not letting the person leave until the person agrees to do what the people want?

[amp_mcq option1=”Confinement” option2=”Wrongful restraint” option3=”Blockade” option4=”Gherao” correct=”option4″]

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The description accurately defines ‘Gherao’. Gherao is a tactic of protest involving surrounding a person in authority to compel them to meet demands, often by physically preventing them from leaving.

Gherao is a specific form of protest involving the encirclement and detention of a person, typically an authority figure, to exert pressure and achieve demands.

Confinement is a broader term for restricting movement. Wrongful restraint is a legal term for unlawfully obstructing someone from moving in a direction they are entitled to. Blockade refers to obstructing access to an area. Gherao specifically involves surrounding a person to confine them as a protest method.

44. In 2006, CISF raised a special unit called the Special Security Group

In 2006, CISF raised a special unit called the Special Security Group (SSG) to provide security cover to protectees. Which of the following is not a part of its duty?

[amp_mcq option1=”Providing physical protection” option2=”Evacuation of the protectees in case of an emergency” option3=”Providing mobile and static security cover to nominated persons” option4=”Providing protection to the relatives and guests of the protectees” correct=”option4″]

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The Special Security Group (SSG) of CISF is mandated to provide security cover to specific protectees based on threat assessment. Its core duties include providing physical protection (A), mobile and static security cover (C), and emergency evacuation (B) for the nominated individuals. Providing protection to the relatives and guests *generally* is not a part of the SSG’s standard duty profile, as their mandate is focused on the security of the principal protectee. Protection for family members or guests, if required, would typically involve separate threat assessments and security arrangements, potentially by other agencies or specific directives.

SSG’s duty is focused on the principal protectee. Protecting relatives and guests is not a standard part of this specific unit’s mandate.

Protection units like SSG operate under strict protocols based on threat levels and specific instructions. Their resources and training are directed towards ensuring the safety of the individual(s) they are assigned to protect. While they might react to threats affecting anyone accompanying the protectee, providing routine security cover for relatives and guests falls outside their primary role unless explicitly included in the protection detail.

45. The dog squad of CISF is trained to sniff and identify which of the fo

The dog squad of CISF is trained to sniff and identify which of the following?

1. Metallic weapons
2. Narcotics
3. Pickle and smuggled food items
4. IEDs

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2″ option2=”2 only” option3=”1 and 3″ option4=”2 and 4″ correct=”option4″]

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CISF dog squads are primarily trained for security purposes, which include detection of explosives and narcotics. IEDs (Improvised Explosive Devices) fall under the category of explosives. Narcotics detection is also a standard function. While dogs *can* be trained for metallic weapons, it is less common than explosives or narcotics detection in general security contexts. Detection of specific food items like pickle or general smuggled food items is not a typical task for security force dog squads. Therefore, sniffing and identifying Narcotics (2) and IEDs (4) are standard capabilities.

Security dog squads are commonly trained for explosive detection (including IEDs) and narcotics detection.

Specialized dog squads are vital assets in security operations, particularly at airports, industrial units, and sensitive locations guarded by CISF. Their olfactory capabilities are leveraged to detect substances or items that pose security threats, with explosives and narcotics being primary targets due to their association with terrorism, smuggling, and crime.

46. For an encashment of earned leave of up to 10 days at the time of avai

For an encashment of earned leave of up to 10 days at the time of availing LTC, a balance of at least how many days should be available to a government servant’s credit after taking into account the period of encashment as well as leave being availed of?

[amp_mcq option1=”180 days” option2=”30 days” option3=”90 days” option4=”300 days” correct=”option2″]

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As per the rules for encashment of Earned Leave at the time of availing LTC, the government servant can encash up to 10 days of EL. A key condition is that the balance of Earned Leave at the credit of the government servant should not fall below 30 days *after* taking into account the period of encashment as well as leave being availed of. Therefore, a balance of at least 30 days should be available to the government servant’s credit after these deductions.

The rule for EL encashment during LTC requires a minimum residual balance of 30 days of EL.

The purpose of this condition is to ensure that government servants retain a sufficient balance of earned leave for future needs like medical emergencies or other essential leaves, even after availing leave for travel and encashing a portion of it. The encashment of EL during LTC is allowed for a maximum of 10 days for every LTC availed, subject to a maximum limit of 60 days EL encashed during the entire career (this limit has been revised over time, but the 10-day per LTC and 30-day residual balance conditions are standard).

47. Earned leave can be combined with which of the following?

Earned leave can be combined with which of the following?

[amp_mcq option1=”Casual leave, half pay leave, maternity leave” option2=”Casual leave, maternity leave, study leave” option3=”Half pay leave, maternity leave, sick leave” option4=”Casual leave, paternity leave, sick leave, study leave” correct=”option3″]

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Earned Leave (EL) can be combined with most other types of leave admissible under the CCS Leave Rules, including Half Pay Leave (HPL), Maternity Leave, Paternity Leave, Child Care Leave, Commuted Leave, Leave Not Due, and Study Leave. Casual Leave is not a recognized type of leave under the rules and cannot be combined with any other leave. Option C includes Half Pay Leave, Maternity Leave, and “sick leave” (which typically refers to leave on medical grounds, i.e., HPL or Commuted Leave). All three can be combined with Earned Leave.

The general rule is that Earned Leave can be combined with any other type of leave *except* Casual Leave.

The CCS Leave Rules provide flexibility for government servants to combine different types of leave to suit their needs, subject to admissibility and specific rules for each leave type. This allows for extended periods of absence when necessary, such as for medical reasons (combining EL with HPL/Commuted Leave), childcare (EL with Maternity/Paternity/Child Care Leave), or self-improvement (EL with Study Leave).

48. As per the CCS (Conduct) Rules, 1964, which one among the following ac

As per the CCS (Conduct) Rules, 1964, which one among the following activities does not require sanction/permission of the prescribed authority?

[amp_mcq option1=”To join as volunteers in civil defence service” option2=”To accept gifts from near relatives, when value exceeds prescribed limits” option3=”To accept fee for work done for any private or public body, or person” option4=”To participate in Shramdaan organized by Bharat Sevak Samaj during spare time” correct=”option4″]

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As per the CCS (Conduct) Rules, 1964:
A) Joining certain voluntary services like Civil Defence may require intimation or permission depending on specific government instructions and the nature of the service.
B) Accepting gifts from near relatives exceeding prescribed limits typically requires *reporting* to the Government, but not necessarily prior *sanction*, especially if received on customary occasions.
C) Accepting a fee for work done for any private or public body or person *explicitly requires the previous sanction* of the Government under Rule 15(1)(c).
D) Participating in Shramdaan (voluntary labour) organized by a recognized social service organization like Bharat Sevak Samaj during spare time is generally considered permissible social service and does not require prior sanction/permission, provided it does not interfere with official duties.
Among the options, participating in Shramdaan during spare time is the activity that most clearly does not require prior sanction/permission.

The CCS (Conduct) Rules distinguish between activities requiring prior sanction (like accepting fees for outside work, engaging in trade), activities requiring reporting (like large gifts from relatives, property transactions above a limit), and activities generally permissible during spare time (like social service).

Rule 15(1)(c) strictly prohibits accepting fees for outside work without sanction. Rule 13 outlines rules regarding gifts, primarily requiring reporting for gifts from relatives exceeding limits on specific occasions. Participation in social service like Shramdaan, especially through recognized bodies, is generally seen as constructive use of spare time and encouraged, rather than restricted through a sanction requirement.

49. As per the CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965, which one among the following is not

As per the CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965, which one among the following is not the competent authority to place a government servant under suspension?

[amp_mcq option1=”Appointing authority” option2=”Any authority, to which the appointing authority is subordinate” option3=”Disciplinary authority” option4=”Inquiry authority” correct=”option4″]

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As per Rule 10 of the CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965, the competent authorities to place a government servant under suspension include the Appointing Authority, any authority to which the Appointing Authority is subordinate, the Disciplinary Authority, and any other authority specifically empowered by the President. The Inquiry Authority is appointed *after* the suspension (or initiation of proceedings) to conduct the inquiry into the charges and is not empowered to order the initial suspension.

Suspension is an interim measure taken by specific authorities during contemplation or pendency of disciplinary proceedings or in case of a criminal offence. The Inquiry Authority’s role begins after charges are framed and an inquiry is ordered.

The power of suspension is executive or quasi-judicial and is vested in designated authorities within the administrative hierarchy. The Inquiry Authority acts in a quasi-judicial capacity to inquire into the truth of the charges but does not possess the power to initiate or terminate disciplinary actions like suspension.

50. Which among the following are the main factors that affect the formati

Which among the following are the main factors that affect the formation of platoon and section?

1. Terrain
2. Command and control
3. Direction of fire
4. Maximum firepower within minimum time

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

[amp_mcq option1=”1, 2 and 3 only” option2=”2 and 4 only” option3=”1, 3 and 4 only” option4=”1, 2, 3 and 4″ correct=”option4″]

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All four factors listed – Terrain, Command and control, Direction of fire, and Maximum firepower within minimum time – are main considerations that affect how a military platoon or section is formed and deployed in tactical situations.

Effective tactical formations are designed to leverage the terrain, ensure clear command and control, allow for concentration and direction of fire towards the enemy, and maximize the unit’s ability to deliver firepower quickly and effectively.

Military tactics emphasize adapting formations based on the specific environment and mission. Terrain influences movement, cover, and fields of fire. Command and control require formations that facilitate communication and supervision. The threat direction dictates the orientation of the formation to bring weapons to bear. The overall goal is to achieve superiority, which involves optimizing firepower delivery.