UPSC CDS-1 Archives

41. In the context of eighteenth century India, what was ‘Dastak’?

In the context of eighteenth century India, what was ‘Dastak’?

Signature

Land document

Trade permit

Tax on textiles

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In the context of 18th-century India, ‘Dastak’ referred to a trade permit or pass. These passes were granted to the English East India Company by Mughal emperors, particularly after the grant of *diwani* rights in Bengal (1765), allowing the Company and its officials to trade goods without paying inland customs duties (tolls). The misuse of these *dastaks* by Company servants for private trade without paying duties became a major source of conflict with the local nawabs, notably leading up to the Battle of Plassey.

– ‘Dastak’ was a permit for trade.
– It exempted the holder from paying customs duties.
– Primarily associated with the English East India Company’s trade in Bengal in the 18th century.

– The misuse of *dastaks* undermined the revenue base of the Bengal Nawab and gave the English Company an unfair advantage over other traders (Indian and European).
– This was one of the factors contributing to the decline of the Mughal Empire’s authority and the rise of the English East India Company’s political power.

42. Name the location of the musical inscription containing groups of musi

Name the location of the musical inscription containing groups of musical notes arranged for the benefit of his pupils by a king in the seventh or eighth century CE.

Ennayiram

Uttaramerur

Siyyamangalam

Kudumiyamalai

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The musical inscription containing groups of musical notes (svaras) from the 7th or 8th century CE is located at Kudumiyamalai in the Pudukkottai district of Tamil Nadu. This inscription is a significant source for understanding ancient Indian music, specifically the Carnatic tradition. It is attributed to the Pallava king Mahendravarman I or one of his successors.

– The Kudumiyamalai inscription is a famous example of ancient Indian musical notation.
– It dates back to the Pallava period (7th-8th century CE).

– Ennayiram was a famous centre of learning with a large college during the Chola period.
– Uttaramerur is known for its inscriptions detailing the village administration of the Cholas (Parantaka I).
– Siyyamangalam is a site with a rock-cut cave temple attributed to the Pallava period (Mahendravarman I).

43. The titles of ‘Rayagajakesari’ and ‘Dayagajakesari’ were associated wi

The titles of ‘Rayagajakesari’ and ‘Dayagajakesari’ were associated with which one of the following dynasties?

Kakatiya

Vijayanagara

Gajapati

Rashtrakuta

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The titles ‘Rayagajakesari’ (Lord of Kings and Elephants) and ‘Dayagajakesari’ (Compassionate Lord of Elephants) were titles adopted by kings of the Gajapati dynasty of Odisha, particularly during their height of power in the 15th and 16th centuries. These titles reflect the military strength of the Gajapatis, who were known for their large elephant forces (‘Gajapati’ literally means ‘Lord of Elephants’).

– ‘Gajapati’ itself means ‘Lord of Elephants’.
– The dynasty was known for its powerful elephant corps.
– These titles were used by rulers of the Gajapati Kingdom of Odisha.

– The Kakatiya dynasty ruled in the Deccan region (modern Telangana and Andhra Pradesh).
– The Vijayanagara Empire was a prominent South Indian empire based in the Deccan.
– The Rashtrakuta dynasty ruled large parts of South India in the 6th to 10th centuries.
– While other dynasties also maintained elephants, the titles specifically mentioned are strongly associated with the Gajapatis.

44. According to the National Multi-dimensional Poverty Index (MPI) constr

According to the National Multi-dimensional Poverty Index (MPI) constructed by the NITI Aayog, a household is considered deprived if

1. a single member of the household is identified as under-nourished
2. the body mass index of a woman member, between 15 years and 49 years of age, is below 18.5 kg/m²

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

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According to the NITI Aayog’s National Multi-dimensional Poverty Index (MPI) methodology, which is based on the global MPI framework, a household is considered deprived in the ‘Nutrition’ indicator if:
– Any child aged 0 to 59 months, or any woman aged 15 to 49 years, or any man aged 15 to 54 years for whom nutritional information is available, is undernourished.
– Undernourishment is defined for adults (15-49 years for women, 15-54 years for men) as having a Body Mass Index (BMI) below 18.5 kg/m². For children (0-59 months), it is based on z-scores for height-for-age, weight-for-age, or weight-for-height.
Statement 1 says “a single member of the household is identified as under-nourished”. This aligns with the criterion that if *any* specified member is undernourished, the household is deprived on this indicator.
Statement 2 says “the body mass index of a woman member, between 15 years and 49 years of age, is below 18.5 kg/m²”. This is the specific definition of undernourishment for a woman in this age group, which makes the household deprived on the nutrition indicator.
Both statements describe conditions that would lead to a household being considered deprived on the nutrition indicator as part of the MPI calculation. Therefore, both statements are correct.

– The National MPI includes Nutrition as one of the indicators under the Health dimension.
– Deprivation in Nutrition is determined based on the nutritional status of specified members of the household.
– Undernourishment for adults (including women aged 15-49) is defined by a BMI below 18.5 kg/m².

– The National MPI uses 12 indicators across 3 dimensions: Health (Nutrition, Child & Adolescent Mortality), Education (Years of Schooling, School Attendance), and Standard of Living (Cooking Fuel, Sanitation, Drinking Water, Electricity, Housing, Assets, Bank Account).
– A household is considered multidimensionally poor if its deprivation score is 33.3% or more.

45. The Citizenship Act, 1955 deals with the determination of citizenship

The Citizenship Act, 1955 deals with the determination of citizenship on or after

26th January, 1950

26th November, 1949

15th August, 1947

14th August, 1947

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The Citizenship Act, 1955 was enacted by the Parliament under Article 11 of the Constitution. The Constitution itself contains provisions relating to citizenship at its commencement, i.e., January 26, 1950. The 1955 Act provides for the acquisition and termination of Indian citizenship *after* the commencement of the Constitution.

– The Citizenship Act, 1955 regulates the acquisition and loss of Indian citizenship after the Constitution came into effect.
– The Constitution (Articles 5-11) dealt with citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution (Jan 26, 1950).

– The Constitution of India came into force on January 26, 1950.
– November 26, 1949, is the date the Constitution was adopted and enacted, and certain provisions relating to citizenship, elections, provisional Parliament, etc., came into force immediately. However, the Citizenship Act, 1955 specifically addresses citizenship determination post-commencement of the Constitution.
– August 15, 1947, was India’s Independence Day.

46. Which one of the following statements about the election of the Presid

Which one of the following statements about the election of the President of India is not correct?

A Union Minister shall not be eligible for election as the President.

The President is elected by the elected members of the Parliament and the Legislative Assemblies of States and Union Territories.

The Electoral College does not include elected members of the Legislative Councils.

The system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote is followed.

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Statement A is incorrect. The Constitution of India does not prohibit a Union Minister from being a candidate for the election of the President. However, if a Union Minister is elected President, they must vacate their office as minister on the date they enter upon their office as President. Articles 58 and 59 of the Constitution lay down the qualifications and conditions for the President’s office, none of which bar a minister from contesting.

– A Union Minister is eligible to contest the Presidential election.
– If elected, they must resign from their ministerial position.

– Statement B is correct. The Electoral College for the President’s election consists of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States, the National Capital Territory of Delhi, and the Union Territory of Puducherry.
– Statement C is correct. Nominated members of Parliament, members of state legislative councils (both elected and nominated), and nominated members of state legislative assemblies do not participate in the Presidential election.
– Statement D is correct. The election is held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote, and voting is by secret ballot.

47. Which one of the following committees does not have members from the R

Which one of the following committees does not have members from the Rajya Sabha?

The Public Accounts Committee

The Committee on Public Undertakings

The Estimates Committee

The Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes

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The Estimates Committee is a standing committee of the Lok Sabha consisting of 30 members. All 30 members are exclusively from the Lok Sabha. It scrutinizes the estimates included in the budget and suggests economies in public expenditure.

The key distinction of the Estimates Committee is that it is the only one among the major financial committees (along with the Public Accounts Committee and Committee on Public Undertakings) that has no representation from the Rajya Sabha.

The Public Accounts Committee has 22 members (15 from Lok Sabha, 7 from Rajya Sabha). The Committee on Public Undertakings also has 22 members (15 from Lok Sabha, 7 from Rajya Sabha). The Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes has 30 members (20 from Lok Sabha, 10 from Rajya Sabha).

48. Which one of the following statements about the Solicitor General of I

Which one of the following statements about the Solicitor General of India (SGI) is not correct?

The SGI is the Government's chief legal advisor.

The SGI is the secondary law officer of the country.

The post of the SGI is a constitutional post.

The SGI is appointed by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet.

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Statement C is not correct. The post of the Attorney General of India (AGI) is a constitutional post, established under Article 76 of the Constitution. However, the post of the Solicitor General of India (SGI) and Additional Solicitors General are statutory posts, appointed by the Government (specifically, the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet) based on rules of business, not directly by a constitutional provision.

The Attorney General is the highest law officer and chief legal advisor to the Government of India. The Solicitor General is the second highest law officer, subordinate to the Attorney General, and assists the AGI in performing his duties.

Statement A is incorrect as the AGI, not the SGI, is the chief legal advisor. Statement B is correct; the SGI is indeed the secondary law officer. Statement D is correct; appointments to such high offices are typically made by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet. Given that the question asks for the *not correct* statement, and both A and C are factually incorrect, Statement C identifying the non-constitutional status of the SGI’s post is a fundamental legal distinction often tested.

49. Indus river basin is extended up to

Indus river basin is extended up to

Ladakh, Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab

Ladakh, Jammu and Kashmir, Punjab, Haryana

Ladakh, Jammu and Kashmir, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan

Ladakh, Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Haryana, Rajasthan

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The Indus River system in India includes the main Indus river (flowing through Ladakh) and its major tributaries: Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas, and Sutlej. These rivers flow through Jammu and Kashmir (now UTs of J&K and Ladakh), Himachal Pradesh (source of Ravi, Beas, Sutlej), and Punjab (where the tributaries join). The command area served by canals from the Sutlej and Beas extends into parts of Haryana and Rajasthan, making these states also part of the broader Indus basin’s influence and water utilization zone within India. Therefore, the basin is extended up to Ladakh, Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, and Rajasthan.

The Indus Water Treaty (1960) between India and Pakistan governs the use of the Indus river system. It allocates the waters of the Eastern Rivers (Ravi, Beas, Sutlej) to India and the Western Rivers (Indus, Jhelum, Chenab) primarily to Pakistan, with limited consumptive use allowed for India on the Western Rivers. The states mentioned in option D are those that benefit from or are part of the Indus river system in India.

While the primary drainage basin flows through Ladakh, J&K, HP, and Punjab, extensive canal networks, part of the Indus system infrastructure in India, irrigate areas in Haryana and Rajasthan, bringing them under the influence of the Indus basin for water resources. This broader interpretation of “extended up to” is common in geographical contexts related to river systems and resource distribution.

50. Consider the following statements and identify the correct answer usin

Consider the following statements and identify the correct answer using the code given below :

1. In a thermal power station, fuels such as oil, coal or natural gas are used to generate electricity.
2. Fuels are burned to heat water and turn it into steam, which goes through a turbine, which spins and turns, generating electricity.

Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is not correct

Statement 2 is correct but statement 1 is not correct

Both the statements are correct and statement 2 explains statement 1

Both the statements are correct but statement 2 does not explain statement 1

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Statement 1 is correct: Thermal power stations generate electricity by burning fuels such as coal, oil, or natural gas. Statement 2 is also correct: The heat produced by burning these fuels is used to heat water, turning it into high-pressure steam. This steam then drives a turbine, which is connected to an electric generator, producing electricity. Statement 2 accurately describes the process by which the generation described in Statement 1 occurs, thus explaining it.

The fundamental principle of thermal power generation involves converting heat energy from burning fuel into mechanical energy (spinning turbine) and then into electrical energy (generator).

While coal is the most common fuel for thermal power plants globally and in India, oil and natural gas are also used. Other sources of heat for generating steam in power plants include nuclear fission (nuclear power plants) and geothermal energy.