UPSC CDS-1 Archives

1. Which one of the following statements about the composition of the Par

Which one of the following statements about the composition of the Parliament is not correct ?

Representatives of the states in Rajya Sabha are elected directly by the people.

Representatives from Union Territories in Lok Sabha are chosen by direct elections.

Rajya Sabha has 12 nominated members.

Lok Sabha has seats reserved for SCs and STs.

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Statement A is incorrect. Representatives of the states in Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the states by proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote (Article 80(4)). They are not elected directly by the people.
Statement B is correct. Parliament has enacted laws providing for direct election of representatives from Union Territories to the Lok Sabha (e.g., Representation of the People Act, 1951).
Statement C is correct. Article 80(3) provides for the nomination of 12 members to the Rajya Sabha by the President from persons having special knowledge or practical experience in respect of such matters as literature, science, art, and social service.
Statement D is correct. Article 330 provides for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) in the Lok Sabha based on their population.

Members of Rajya Sabha from states are indirectly elected by state legislative assemblies, while members of Lok Sabha from states and UTs are generally directly elected by the people. Rajya Sabha includes nominated members, and Lok Sabha has reserved seats for SCs and STs.

The Rajya Sabha is the Upper House (Council of States) and the Lok Sabha is the Lower House (House of the People) of the Parliament of India. The total strength of the Lok Sabha is currently 543 elected members. The maximum strength of Rajya Sabha is 250, of which 238 are representatives of states and union territories and 12 are nominated by the President.

2. Which among the following fundamental rights is/are available to non-c

Which among the following fundamental rights is/are available to non-citizens?

1. Freedom of speech
2. Protection against self-incrimination
3. Freedom of conscience
4. Non-discrimination in matters of employment

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1, 2 and 3 only

1, 3 and 4 only

2 and 3 only

2 only

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Fundamental Rights available only to citizens (and not non-citizens) are those under Articles 15, 16, 19, 29, and 30. All other fundamental rights guaranteed by Articles 14, 20, 21, 21A, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27, 28 are available to all persons, including non-citizens.
1. Freedom of speech (Article 19): Available only to citizens.
2. Protection against self-incrimination (Article 20(3)): Available to all persons.
3. Freedom of conscience (Article 25): Available to all persons.
4. Non-discrimination in matters of employment (Article 16): Available only to citizens.
Therefore, the fundamental rights available to non-citizens among the given options are 2 and 3.

Certain fundamental rights are available exclusively to Indian citizens, while others are available to all persons residing in India, including citizens and foreigners.

Article 14 (Equality before law and equal protection of laws), Article 20 (Protection in respect of conviction for offences), Article 21 (Protection of life and personal liberty), Article 21A (Right to elementary education), Article 22 (Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases), Article 23 (Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour), Article 24 (Prohibition of employment of children in factories, etc.), and Articles 25-28 (Right to freedom of religion) are available to both citizens and non-citizens.

3. Which one of the following is not a correct description of the Union C

Which one of the following is not a correct description of the Union Cabinet ?

It is part of the Parliament.

It is responsible to the Parliament.

It remains in power till it enjoys the confidence of the Parliament.

A person from outside the Parliament can never be appointed a member of the Cabinet.

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Statement A is incorrect. The Union Cabinet is the inner core of the Council of Ministers, which is part of the executive branch of the government. The Parliament is the legislative branch. While the Cabinet is formed from members of Parliament (mostly) and is accountable to Parliament, it is constitutionally distinct from Parliament itself.
Statement B is correct. The Council of Ministers, including the Cabinet, is collectively responsible to the House of the People (Lok Sabha) as per Article 75(3).
Statement C is correct. Due to collective responsibility, the Cabinet remains in power as long as it enjoys the confidence of the Lok Sabha. A vote of no-confidence passed by the Lok Sabha against the Council of Ministers leads to the resignation of the entire Council, including the Cabinet.
Statement D is incorrect as an absolute statement. Article 75(5) states that a Minister who is not a member of either House of Parliament for any period of six consecutive months shall at the expiration of that period cease to be a Minister. This implies a person from outside Parliament can be appointed, but only temporarily unless they become a member within six months. Therefore, the statement that they *can never* be appointed is false.
However, comparing A and D as ‘not correct descriptions’, A is a more fundamental mischaracterization of the Cabinet’s place within the structure of government (Executive vs. Legislature), while D is incorrect based on a specific appointment rule. In the context of describing the Union Cabinet’s nature, A is a more significant incorrect statement.

The Union Cabinet is part of the Executive, responsible to the Parliament (Lok Sabha), and holds office based on the confidence of the Lok Sabha.

The Cabinet is the principal decision-making body within the Council of Ministers. It consists of the Prime Minister and senior ministers who hold important portfolios.

4. Which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. The elections

Which of the following statements is/are correct ?

1. The elections to the Panchayat are conducted by the State Election Commission.
2. The State Election Commissioner is appointed by the Chief Election Commissioner of India.
3. The State Legislatures have the power to make laws on all matters relating to Panchayat elections.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

2 only

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 3

1 and 3 only

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Statement 1 is correct. Article 243K(1) states that the superintendence, direction, and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections to the Panchayats shall be vested in a State Election Commission.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 243K(2) states that the State Election Commissioner shall be appointed by the Governor of the State.
Statement 3 is correct. Article 243K(1) empowers the State Legislature, subject to the provisions of the Constitution, to make laws with respect to all matters relating to the elections to the Panchayats.

Panchayat elections are conducted by an independent constitutional body, the State Election Commission, appointed by the Governor, and the State Legislature has legislative power over related matters.

The conditions of service and tenure of the State Election Commissioner are determined by the Governor, subject to the provisions of any law made by the State Legislature. The State Election Commissioner can only be removed from office in the same manner and on the same grounds as a Judge of a High Court.

5. Which of the following statements about the Panchayati Raj System are

Which of the following statements about the Panchayati Raj System are correct ?

1. All seats in a Panchayat are filled by persons chosen by direct election.
2. The ‘Gram Sabha’ consists of persons registered in the village electoral rolls.
3. The Chairperson of a Panchayat is elected in accordance with a law passed by each state.
4. All states in India have a three-tier system of Panchayats.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1 and 4 only

1, 2 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

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Statement 1 is correct. According to Article 243C(2), all the seats in a Panchayat are filled by persons chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the Panchayat area.
Statement 2 is correct. According to Article 243A, the Gram Sabha consists of persons registered in the electoral rolls relating to a village comprised within the area of a Panchayat at the village level.
Statement 3 is correct. According to Article 243C(4), the Chairperson of a Panchayat at the village level shall be elected in such manner as the State Legislature may, by law, provide, and the Chairpersons of a Panchayat at the intermediate level or district level shall be elected by, and from amongst, the elected members thereof. The specific method for electing the Chairperson at the village level is left to the state law.
Statement 4 is incorrect. Article 243B(2) provides that Panchayats at the intermediate level may not be constituted in a State having a population not exceeding twenty lakhs. Also, some states like Meghalaya, Mizoram, and Nagaland, as well as certain areas like hill areas of Manipur, Darjeeling district of West Bengal, etc., have different arrangements/exemptions regarding Panchayats.

Key aspects of Panchayati Raj system include direct election of members, composition and role of Gram Sabha, method of election of Chairperson decided by state law, and the possibility of a two-tier system in smaller states.

The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, introduced the Panchayati Raj system in India. It added Part IX and the Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution. The three tiers envisaged are Village Panchayat, Intermediate Panchayat (Block Panchayat), and District Panchayat (Zila Parishad).

6. Which one of the following units is not a part of All India Radio’s Tr

Which one of the following units is not a part of All India Radio’s Transcription and Programme Exchange Service ?

Central Archives

Sound Archives

Advanced Research Unit

Transcription Unit

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All India Radio’s (AIR) Transcription and Programme Exchange Service is primarily involved in archiving, transcribing, and exchanging radio programmes. Its core units include the Central Archives, Sound Archives, and Transcription Unit, along with a Programme Exchange Unit. An ‘Advanced Research Unit’ is not typically listed as a standard component of this specific service. AIR does have research and development wings, but they are separate from the archiving and exchange function.

The Transcription and Programme Exchange Service of AIR focuses on preserving and distributing audio content.

The Central Archives of AIR hold historically significant recordings, while Sound Archives house a wider collection. The Transcription Unit is responsible for preparing written versions of broadcasts. The Programme Exchange Unit facilitates the sharing of programmes among different AIR stations and with other broadcasting organizations.

8. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :

List I	List II
A. Cyclones	1. Western Australia
B. Hurricanes	2. South China Sea
C. Typhoons	3. Indian Ocean
D. Willy-willies	4. Atlantic Ocean

Code :

A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3

A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3

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Matching the local names of tropical cyclones with their regions:
A. Cyclones – Tropical cyclones in the Indian Ocean are generally called Cyclones. (3. Indian Ocean)
B. Hurricanes – Tropical cyclones in the Atlantic Ocean are called Hurricanes. (4. Atlantic Ocean)
C. Typhoons – Tropical cyclones in the western Pacific Ocean and South China Sea are called Typhoons. (2. South China Sea)
D. Willy-willies – Tropical cyclones off the coast of Western Australia are sometimes called Willy-willies. (1. Western Australia)
The correct code is A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1.

Tropical cyclones are known by different regional names depending on the ocean basin where they originate.

Examples of other regional names include ‘Bagyo’ in the Philippines and ‘severe cyclonic storm’ in the North Indian Ocean classification.

9. Which one of the following longitudes is the standard meridian of Indi

Which one of the following longitudes is the standard meridian of India ?

83°30' E

82°30' E

82°30' W

83°30' W

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The standard meridian of India is 82°30′ E longitude. This longitude passes through Mirzapur in Uttar Pradesh and is used as the reference for Indian Standard Time (IST).

The standard meridian is chosen to be roughly in the middle of the country’s longitudinal extent to minimize the time difference between the eastern and western parts of the country.

IST is 5 hours and 30 minutes ahead of Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) or Greenwich Mean Time (GMT). The longitudinal extent of India is roughly from 68°7′ E to 97°25′ E.

10. Which one of the following water bodies separates the Andaman and the

Which one of the following water bodies separates the Andaman and the Nicobar islands ?

Gulf of Mannar

Ten Degree Channel

Eleven Degree Channel

Palk Strait

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The Ten Degree Channel is a strait that separates the Andaman Islands and the Nicobar Islands in the Bay of Bengal. It is named as it lies on the 10-degree line of latitude, north of the equator.

The Ten Degree Channel is a significant geographical feature marking the separation between the two major island groups of the Andaman and Nicobar archipelago.

Other important channels in the region include the Duncan Passage which separates South Andaman and Little Andaman, and the Great Channel which separates Great Nicobar from Sumatra (Indonesia). The Gulf of Mannar and Palk Strait are located between India and Sri Lanka.