UPSC CDS-1

1. Saubhagya, a Government of India Scheme, relates to which of the follo

Saubhagya, a Government of India Scheme, relates to which of the following areas?

Achieving universal household electrification
Providing clean cooking fuel to poor households
Rationalizing subsidies on LPG
Stopping female foeticide
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‘Saubhagya’ is the acronym for Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana. The scheme was launched with the objective of achieving universal household electrification in rural and urban areas across the country.
– Saubhagya aimed to provide electricity connections to all remaining unelectrified households.
– The scheme focused on providing last-mile connectivity.
– It is implemented by the Ministry of Power.
Other schemes mentioned relate to different areas: Providing clean cooking fuel to poor households is the objective of Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY). Rationalizing subsidies on LPG involves direct benefit transfer (DBT) schemes like PAHAL. Stopping female foeticide is an objective of schemes like Beti Bachao Beti Padhao.

2. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the Members

Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS)?

Members of the Parliament (MPs) sanction, execute and complete works under the scheme.
Nominated Members of the Parliament can recommend works for implementation anywhere in the country.
The scheme is fully funded by the Government of India.
The annual entitlement per MP is ₹ 5 crore.
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Under the Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), Members of Parliament (MPs) *recommend* works for implementation. The *District Authority* is responsible for sanctioning, executing, and completing the recommended works. Option A is incorrect as it states that MPs sanction, execute, and complete the works themselves.
– MPLADS is a Central Sector Scheme.
– The funds are released directly to the District Authority.
– Nominated Members of Parliament can recommend works for implementation anywhere in the country. (Option B is correct)
– The scheme is fully funded by the Government of India. (Option C is correct)
– The annual entitlement per MP was ₹ 5 crore (Note: This was the case before the scheme was suspended temporarily from April 2020 onwards and then restored with reduced entitlement). (Option D is correct based on the typical understanding of the scheme prior to the suspension).
The MPLADS guidelines detail the nature of works permissible (creation of durable community assets), fund flow, monitoring mechanisms, etc. The scheme aims to enable MPs to recommend works of developmental nature with emphasis on the creation of durable community assets based on locally felt needs.

3. Which one of the following is the earliest launched scheme of the Gove

Which one of the following is the earliest launched scheme of the Government of India?

Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana
Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana
Deendayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana
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Comparing the launch years of the schemes listed:
– Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana: The National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM) component started in 2011, and the National Urban Livelihoods Mission (NULM) in 2013. The scheme was renamed DAY in 2015.
– Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY): Launched in 2000.
– Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana (SAGY): Launched in 2014.
– Deendayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY): Launched in 2014.
PMGSY, launched in 2000, is the earliest among the given options.
– PMGSY aims to provide connectivity to unconnected habitations in rural areas.
– DAY (NRLM/NULM) focuses on poverty reduction through livelihood promotion for rural and urban poor.
– SAGY aims for holistic development of selected villages through convergence of government schemes.
– DDU-GKY is a skilling initiative for rural youth.
PMGSY falls under the purview of the Ministry of Rural Development. It is a flagship program for rural infrastructure development.

4. Which one of the following statements with regard to the functioning o

Which one of the following statements with regard to the functioning of the Panchayats is not correct?

Panchayats may levy, collect and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls, etc.
A person who has attained the age of 25 years will be eligible to be a member of a Panchayat.
Every Panchayat shall ordinarily continue for five years from the date of its first meeting.
A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution shall continue only for the remainder of the full period.
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Article 243F of the Constitution of India, relating to disqualifications for membership of a Panchayat, states that a person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of a Panchayat if he is so disqualified by or under any law made by the Legislature of the State or if he has attained the age of twenty-one years. Therefore, a person who has attained the age of 21 years (not 25 years) is eligible to be a member of a Panchayat, provided they are not otherwise disqualified. Option B is incorrect.
– Article 243H allows State Legislatures to authorise Panchayats to levy, collect, and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls, and fees. (Option A is correct)
– Article 243E stipulates that every Panchayat shall continue for five years from the date appointed for its first meeting, unless sooner dissolved. (Option C is correct)
– Article 243E(4) states that a Panchayat constituted after a premature dissolution shall continue only for the remainder of the period for which the dissolved Panchayat would have continued had it not been so dissolved. (Option D is correct)
The 73rd Amendment Act, 1992 gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions in India. It added Part IX and the Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution.

5. Which one of the following is not an objective of the MGNREGA?

Which one of the following is not an objective of the MGNREGA?

Providing up to 100 days of skilled labour in a financial year
Creation of productive assets
Enhancing livelihood security
Ensuring empowerment to women
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The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) is a social security measure that guarantees the ‘right to work’. Its primary objective is to guarantee 100 days of *unskilled manual work* in a financial year to any rural household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work. Option A incorrectly states “skilled labour”.
– MGNREGA provides guarantee of 100 days of *unskilled* manual work.
– It aims to enhance livelihood security in rural areas.
– It also focuses on creating durable assets (like water conservation structures, rural connectivity, flood control works).
– The Act ensures empowerment of women by reserving at least one-third of the beneficiaries who are wage earners to be women.
MGNREGA was enacted in 2005. It is implemented by the Ministry of Rural Development. The legal entitlement is for 100 days of employment, but states can provide more days from their own resources.

6. Which one of the following is not a land use category?

Which one of the following is not a land use category?

Forestland
Pasture land
Marginal land
Barren and wasteland
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The correct answer is Marginal land. While ‘marginal land’ describes land quality or potential, it is not typically listed as a fundamental, discrete category in standard land use classifications used for statistical purposes.
Standard land use classification categorizes land based on its cover and current use, such as forest, pasture, cultivated land, barren land, etc.
Forestland, Pasture land (Permanent pastures and other grazing lands), and Barren and wasteland (Barren and unculturable land) are commonly recognized and included as categories in land use statistics and surveys.

7. Which one of the following is not a type of commercial agriculture?

Which one of the following is not a type of commercial agriculture?

Dairy farming
Grain farming
Livestock ranching
Intensive subsistence agriculture
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The correct answer is Intensive subsistence agriculture. This type of farming is primarily aimed at producing food for the farmer’s own consumption or local needs, with limited surplus for commercial sale.
Commercial agriculture is characterized by production for sale in the market, often on a large scale and with the use of modern technology.
Dairy farming, grain farming (like wheat or corn in large farms), and livestock ranching are all examples of commercial agriculture where products are raised for sale and profit.

8. Which one of the following rivers joins Ganga directly?

Which one of the following rivers joins Ganga directly?

Chambal
Son
Betwa
Ken
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The correct answer is Son. The Son River is a major right-bank tributary of the Ganga, originating in the Amarkantak region and joining the Ganga directly near Patna in Bihar.
The Son is one of the longest rivers in central India and an important tributary system of the Ganga.
Chambal, Betwa, and Ken are all tributaries of the Yamuna River, which itself is a major tributary of the Ganga. They do not join the Ganga directly.

9. The number of people per unit area of arable land is termed as

The number of people per unit area of arable land is termed as

agricultural density
arithmetic density
physiological density
economic density
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The correct answer is physiological density. Physiological density is defined as the total population divided by the area of arable land.
This density measure provides insight into the pressure exerted by a population on the available agricultural land.
Arithmetic density is total population divided by total land area. Agricultural density is the number of farmers per unit area of arable land. Economic density can refer to population density in relation to economic indicators.

10. In the field of tourism, which one of the following Indian States is d

In the field of tourism, which one of the following Indian States is described as ‘One State Many Worlds’?

Assam
West Bengal
Karnataka
Rajasthan
This question was previously asked in
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The correct answer is Karnataka. The state of Karnataka uses the tagline ‘One State, Many Worlds’ to promote its diverse tourism offerings.
The tagline highlights Karnataka’s rich diversity, encompassing historical sites, beaches, hill stations, wildlife, and cultural experiences within a single state.
Each state has its own unique tourism branding; for example, Kerala is known as ‘God’s Own Country’, Rajasthan as ‘The Incredible State of India’, and Madhya Pradesh as ‘The Heart of Incredible India’.
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