UPSC CAPF Archives

41. Consider the following pairs: Place Well-known for 1. A

Consider the following pairs:

Place	Well-known for
1. Alchi Temple	Lakshmidevi sculpture
2. Sthaneshwar Temple	Ardhanarishvara sculpture
3. Jain Temple at Osian	Image of Vrishabhanatha

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

1 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2010

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Statement 1 is incorrect. Alchi Monastery in Ladakh is a significant Buddhist site, renowned for its unique wall paintings (murals) and sculptures depicting Buddhist themes, heavily influenced by Kashmiri and Central Asian styles. It is not primarily known for a Lakshmidevi sculpture, which is a Hindu deity.
Statement 3 is correct. Osian in Rajasthan is known for its ancient Hindu and Jain temples. The Jain temples there contain images of Jain Tirthankaras, and images of Vrishabhanatha (Adinatha), the first Tirthankara, are indeed found and celebrated there.
Statement 2 is correct. Sthaneshwar Mahadev Temple is a famous Shiva temple in Thanesar, Haryana. While it is known for its historical significance and as a pilgrimage site, it also contains significant sculptures, including depictions of Ardhanarishvara (a form of Shiva). It is considered well-known for such iconographies within its collection.
Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are correctly matched, while statement 1 is not.

Knowledge of prominent archaeological and religious sites and their well-known features is required. Alchi is Buddhist art (murals), Osian Jain temples feature Tirthankaras, and Sthaneshwar temple features various Shiva forms.

Osian was a major religious centre between the 8th and 11th centuries. The Jain temples there are fine examples of Pratihara architecture. Sthaneshwar temple has ancient roots, linked to the Pushyabhuti dynasty.

42. Which one of the following statements best describes the ‘carbon

Which one of the following statements best describes the ‘carbon price’?

It is the cost of carbon emissions per unit of time.

It is the price paid for carbon credits in a cap-and-trade system.

It is the economic value put on greenhouse gas emissions.

It is the price of gasoline and diesel fuel which is heavily taxed by the government.

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2010

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‘Carbon price’ is an economic instrument that puts a monetary value on greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions. This value represents the cost of the environmental damage caused by emitting one additional unit of GHGs. It aims to make emitters pay for the external costs of their pollution, thereby incentivizing them to reduce emissions. While the price of carbon credits in a cap-and-trade system (B) is a *method* of establishing a carbon price, and taxing fuels (D) can incorporate a carbon price component, the definition (C) “the economic value put on greenhouse gas emissions” best describes the concept of carbon price itself.

Carbon pricing is a policy tool designed to use market mechanisms to mitigate climate change by reflecting the cost of emissions in the price of goods and services.

Carbon pricing mechanisms include carbon taxes (a direct tax on emissions) and cap-and-trade systems (setting a limit on total emissions and allowing emitters to trade permits). The carbon price should ideally reflect the social cost of carbon.

43. Which one of the following is a component of both the Basal Convention

Which one of the following is a component of both the Basal Convention and the Stockholm Convention?

Mercury

Plastic waste

Persistent organic pollutants

Heavy metals

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2010

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The Basel Convention on the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and Their Disposal regulates the movement and disposal of hazardous and other wastes. The Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) aims to eliminate or restrict the production and use of POPs and reduce their release into the environment. Hazardous wastes covered under the Basel Convention can include wastes containing POPs. The Stockholm Convention also addresses the environmentally sound management and disposal of POPs, which when in waste form, fall under the purview of the Basel Convention for transboundary movement. Therefore, Persistent Organic Pollutants are a component relevant to both conventions, especially in the context of POPs waste.

While Basel deals broadly with hazardous waste and Stockholm deals with specific persistent organic pollutants, the intersection occurs when POPs become waste, making POPs a relevant element to both agreements.

The Basel Convention was adopted in 1989 and entered into force in 1992. The Stockholm Convention was adopted in 2001 and entered into force in 2004. Other options like Mercury are covered by the Minamata Convention, and Plastic waste was recently added to the scope of the Basel Convention but is not the primary focus of the Stockholm Convention.

44. Which among the following is the most likely consequence of implementi

Which among the following is the most likely consequence of implementing the ‘Unified Payments Interface (UPI)’?

Global remittances will increase substantially.

Foreign Direct Investments (FDIs) will be encouraged.

Digital payments will increase substantially.

Inclusion of the poor people into the formal financial system will increase substantially.

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2010

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The Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is a system that powers multiple bank accounts into a single mobile application (of any participating bank), merging several banking features, seamless fund routing & merchant payments into one hood. Its primary impact is to make digital transactions easier, faster, and more accessible. Therefore, the most likely consequence of implementing UPI is a substantial increase in digital payments within the country. While UPI can contribute to financial inclusion (D) and potentially facilitate global remittances in the future (A) through international linkages, its direct and most significant impact has been on boosting the volume and value of domestic digital transactions. It does not directly encourage Foreign Direct Investments (B).

UPI revolutionized the digital payments ecosystem in India by providing a simple, interoperable, and real-time platform for mobile-based payments, leading to exponential growth in digital transactions.

UPI was developed by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) and launched in 2016. It is built on the IMPS infrastructure and allows for instant money transfers between any two parties using a virtual payment address (VPA) or mobile number.

45. Consider the following statements: 1. All decisions of the Council

Consider the following statements:

1. All decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the Union must be communicated to the President of India.
2. The President of India can call for any information relating to the administration of the Union.
3. The Prime Minister must submit for consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter on which a decision has been taken by a Minister but which has not been considered by the Council.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2010

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All three statements are correct. Article 78 of the Constitution outlines the duties of the Prime Minister. Statement 1 is a duty under Article 78(a): the Prime Minister must communicate all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation to the President. Statement 2 is a duty under Article 78(b): the Prime Minister must furnish such information relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation as the President may call for. Statement 3 is a duty under Article 78(c): if the President so requires, the Prime Minister must submit for the consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter on which a decision has been taken by a Minister but which has not been considered by the Council.

Article 78 defines the key link and flow of information between the Council of Ministers (headed by the Prime Minister) and the President of India.

These provisions ensure that the President, as the head of the executive, is kept informed about the functioning of the government and can exercise oversight and influence within the constitutional framework.

46. Consider the following statements: 1. The Parliament (Prevention of

Consider the following statements:

1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the ground of ‘Office of Profit’.
2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
3. The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2010

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Statement 1 is correct. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959, lists several offices under the Central and State Governments that do not disqualify a person from being a Member of Parliament, thereby exempting them from the ‘Office of Profit’ criterion for disqualification. Statement 3 is incorrect. The term ‘Office of Profit’ is not explicitly defined in the Constitution, but its meaning has been interpreted by the courts based on various criteria, such as whether the office carries remuneration, whether the holder can influence government decisions, and whether the government has control over the appointment or removal. Statement 2 is correct; the Act has been amended multiple times since its enactment to add more offices to the list of exempted posts.

The concept of ‘Office of Profit’ is not defined in the Constitution but has been subject to judicial interpretation. Parliament has the power to exempt certain offices through legislation (like the 1959 Act) from being considered offices of profit for disqualification purposes.

Articles 102(1)(a) and 191(1)(a) of the Constitution prohibit a person from holding an ‘Office of Profit’ under the government (Union or State) while being a member of Parliament or a State Legislature, respectively. The purpose is to maintain the independence of the legislature and prevent conflicts of interest.

47. Consider the following statements: 1. The Parliament of India can p

Consider the following statements:

1. The Parliament of India can place any law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgment can be made on it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2010

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Statement 1 is correct. The Parliament has the power to amend the Constitution and can add laws to the Ninth Schedule through a constitutional amendment. Statement 2 is incorrect. While laws placed in the Ninth Schedule were initially immune from judicial review, the Supreme Court in the I.R. Coelho case (2007) held that laws placed in the Ninth Schedule after April 24, 1973, are open to judicial review if they violate the basic structure of the Constitution.

Laws placed in the Ninth Schedule are not absolutely immune from judicial review; their validity can be examined on the ground of violating the basic structure of the Constitution if they were added after the Kesavananda Bharati judgment date.

The Ninth Schedule was added to the Constitution by the 1st Amendment Act, 1951, primarily to protect land reform laws from being challenged in courts on the ground of violation of Fundamental Rights, particularly the right to property.

48. Consider the following statements regarding the powers of the Comptrol

Consider the following statements regarding the powers of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India:

1. He has the power to audit all expenditures from the Consolidated Fund of India and the Consolidated Fund of each State and Union Territory having a Legislative Assembly.
2. He has the power to audit all expenditures from the Contingency Fund of India and the Public Account of India.
3. He has the power to audit all expenditures from the Contingency Fund of each State and the Public Account of each State.
4. He has the power to request any accounts, papers, and records relating to expenditures.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1, 3 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2010

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Statement 1 is correct as the CAG audits the Consolidated Fund of India, States, and Union Territories with Legislative Assemblies. Statements 2 and 3 are correct as the CAG also audits expenditures from the Contingency Fund and Public Account of both the Union and the States. Statement 4 is correct as the CAG has the necessary powers under the CAG’s (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971, to demand access to all relevant accounts, papers, and records to carry out audits.

The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India’s (CAG) powers extend to auditing all expenditures from the main public funds of the Union and States, including the Consolidated Fund, Contingency Fund, and Public Account. The CAG also has the power to inspect relevant documents.

The CAG is appointed under Article 148 of the Constitution of India. Article 149 gives Parliament the power to prescribe the duties and powers of the CAG, which led to the enactment of the CAG Act, 1971. The CAG audits not only government expenditures but also the accounts of government companies and corporations as specified by law.

49. Consider the following statements: 1. The National Development Coun

Consider the following statements:

1. The National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission.
2. The Prime Minister of India is the Chairman of the National Development Council.
3. The National Development Council is a statutory body.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2010

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Statements 1 and 2 are correct.

– Statement 1: The National Development Council (NDC) was a body closely associated with the Planning Commission. While not formally an ‘organ of’ the Planning Commission in the sense of being a subordinate part, the NDC was the highest decision-making body for approving Five Year Plans formulated by the Planning Commission. Members of the Planning Commission were also members of the NDC. Given the options, this statement is likely intended to be interpreted as reflecting the close functional relationship and oversight role of the NDC over the planning process led by the Planning Commission.
– Statement 2: The Prime Minister of India was the ex-officio Chairman of the National Development Council. This is a factual detail about the composition and leadership of the NDC.
– Statement 3: The National Development Council was neither a constitutional body (established by the Constitution) nor a statutory body (established by an Act of Parliament). It was established in 1952 by an Executive Resolution of the Union Cabinet. Therefore, it was an extra-constitutional, non-statutory body. This statement is incorrect.

– The National Development Council was dissolved along with the Planning Commission when NITI Aayog was established in 2015. Its role and composition were significant during the era of Five Year Plans.
– The NDC comprised the Prime Minister, Union Cabinet Ministers, Chief Ministers of all States, Chief Ministers/Administrators of Union Territories, and members of the Planning Commission.
– Its main functions were to prescribe guidelines for plan formulation, consider the national plan, and make recommendations for achieving plan targets.

50. Consider the following statements: 1. The President of India appoin

Consider the following statements:

1. The President of India appoints the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners.
2. The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners have equal powers.
3. An Election Commissioner can be removed from office only on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2010

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Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

– Statement 1: Article 324(2) of the Constitution states that the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners shall be appointed by the President of India.
– Statement 2: The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners have equal powers in terms of decision-making within the Election Commission. Section 22 of The Election Commissioner (Conditions of Service of Election Commissioners and Transaction of Business) Act, 1991, explicitly states this. Matters are decided by a majority vote of the Commissioners. The Chief Election Commissioner acts as the chairman but does not have overriding powers.
– Statement 3: Article 324(5) provides that an Election Commissioner or a Regional Commissioner shall not be removed from office except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner. This is a safeguard intended to protect the independence of the other Commissioners, making their removal more difficult and dependent on the CEC’s view. The Chief Election Commissioner, however, can only be removed in the same manner as a Judge of the Supreme Court (by a parliamentary address).

– The multi-member Election Commission was established in 1989, and the equality of powers among the CEC and other ECs was clarified by the Election Commissioner (Conditions of Service of Election Commissioners and Transaction of Business) Act, 1991, and subsequent judicial pronouncements.
– The security of tenure and difficult removal process are crucial for ensuring the independence of the Election Commission.