UPSC SO-Steno Archives

31. Which one of the following Acts is not directly related to the protect

Which one of the following Acts is not directly related to the protection of Intellectual Property Rights?

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The Transfer of Property Act, 1882

The Semiconductor Integrated Circuits Layout Designs Act, 2000

The Trade and Merchandise Marks Act, 1958

The Patents Act, 1970

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The Transfer of Property Act, 1882 deals with the transfer of immovable property and certain forms of movable property in India. It is not directly related to the protection of Intellectual Property Rights (IPRs).

– Intellectual Property Rights protect creations of the mind, such as inventions (patents), literary and artistic works (copyright), designs, symbols, names, and images used in commerce (trademarks), and layout designs of integrated circuits.
– The Semiconductor Integrated Circuits Layout Designs Act, 2000 specifically protects the layout designs of integrated circuits, which is a type of IPR.
– The Trade and Merchandise Marks Act, 1958 (now largely replaced by the Trade Marks Act, 1999) dealt with the protection of trademarks, which are IPRs.
– The Patents Act, 1970 deals with the grant and protection of patents for inventions, which are IPRs.

– Other major Acts related to IPRs in India include the Copyright Act, 1957, the Designs Act, 2000, and the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999.

32. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

The Attorney General holds office during the pleasure of the President.

The Attorney General is appointed for a term of five years or till the age of 65 years whichever is earlier.

There is no statutory age limit for appointment or retirement of the Attorney General.

In the Lok Sabha/Rajya Sabha, the Attorney General occupies a seat on the treasury benches and is entitled to all privileges and immunities of Members of Parliament.

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The statement that the Attorney General is appointed for a term of five years or till the age of 65 years whichever is earlier is incorrect. The Constitution does not specify a fixed tenure or age limit for the Attorney General.

– Statement A is correct: Article 76(4) states that the Attorney General shall hold office during the pleasure of the President. This means the President can remove the AG at any time.
– Statement C is correct: As per the Constitution, there is no fixed term or age limit for the appointment or retirement of the Attorney General.
– Statement D is correct: Article 88 grants the Attorney General the right to speak in, and otherwise take part in the proceedings of, either House of Parliament, any joint sitting, and any committee of Parliament of which he may be named a member, but without the right to vote. Article 105(4) extends the privileges and immunities of Members of Parliament to the Attorney General. While occupying a seat on the treasury benches is a convention, the right to participate and enjoy privileges/immunities is constitutional.

– The Attorney General is the chief legal advisor to the Government of India.
– The person appointed as AG must be qualified to be appointed a Judge of the Supreme Court (Article 76(1)).
– The AG receives remuneration as determined by the President (Article 76(4)).

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33. Which one of the following organisations is not under the administrati

Which one of the following organisations is not under the administrative control of the Department of Commerce?

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Directorate General of Commercial Intelligence and Statistics

Marine Products Export Development Authority

Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority

Competition Commission of India

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The Competition Commission of India (CCI) is a statutory body responsible for enforcing the Competition Act, 2002. It functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, not the Department of Commerce.

– The Directorate General of Commercial Intelligence and Statistics (DGCIS) is the official agency for trade statistics and commercial information in India, under the Department of Commerce.
– The Marine Products Export Development Authority (MPEDA) is a statutory body under the Department of Commerce responsible for the development of the marine products industry with special reference to export.
– The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) is a statutory body under the Department of Commerce responsible for the export promotion of agricultural and processed food products.

– The Ministry of Corporate Affairs is responsible for the administration of the Companies Act, 2013, the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008, the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, and the Competition Act, 2002, among others.

34. The Department of Commerce can decide matters relating to grant of fis

The Department of Commerce can decide matters relating to grant of fiscal concessions in Special Economic Zones with the concurrence of

the Minister-in-charge of the Department

the Department of Economic Affairs

the Department of Revenue

the Parliament

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Matters relating to the grant of fiscal concessions involve taxation and revenue. While the Department of Commerce is the nodal department for SEZ policy, decisions concerning fiscal matters, especially concessions, require the concurrence of the Department of Revenue within the Ministry of Finance.

– Fiscal concessions in SEZs typically involve exemptions or reductions in customs duty, excise duty, income tax, etc.
– The Department of Revenue is responsible for the administration of direct and indirect taxes in India.
– Any decision impacting government revenue requires consultation with and concurrence from the Ministry of Finance, specifically the Department of Revenue for tax-related matters.

– The SEZ Act, 2005 and SEZ Rules specify the framework for fiscal concessions, but administrative decisions and interpretations often require inter-ministerial consultation, particularly with the Ministry of Finance.

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35. Which one of the following cadres is not managed by the Ministry of

Which one of the following cadres is not managed by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry ?

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Indian Economic Service

Indian Trade Service

Indian Supply Service

Indian Inspection Service

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The Indian Economic Service (IES) is not managed by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. It is jointly managed by the Department of Economic Affairs (DEA) in the Ministry of Finance and the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.

– The Indian Trade Service (ITS) is a cadre managed by the Department of Commerce under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
– The Indian Supply Service (ISS) was historically associated with the Directorate General of Supplies & Disposals (DGS&D), which was at times under the Ministry of Commerce, but ISS is not a primary cadre managed by the current Ministry of Commerce and Industry structure compared to ITS.
– The Indian Inspection Service is not a standard recognized central civil service cadre managed by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

– The IES cadre provides professionals who handle economic analysis, policy advice, and program implementation in various government ministries and departments.
– The ITS cadre deals with foreign trade promotion and regulation.

36. Minerals and Metals Trading Corporation functions under the administra

Minerals and Metals Trading Corporation functions under the administrative control of which one of the following Ministries/Departments ?

Ministry of Mines

Department of Commerce

Department of Heavy Industries

Ministry of Earth Sciences

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Minerals and Metals Trading Corporation (MMTC) is a Public Sector Undertaking involved in international trade, particularly in minerals, metals, and other commodities. PSUs dealing with trade fall under the administrative control of the Department of Commerce, which is part of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

– The Department of Commerce is responsible for formulating and implementing foreign trade policy and managing various aspects related to India’s international trade.
– MMTC’s primary functions align with the mandate of the Department of Commerce.

– MMTC is one of the two major trading PSUs of the Government of India, the other being State Trading Corporation of India (STC), which is also under the Department of Commerce.

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37. Which one of the following Ministries/Departments is concerned with ma

Which one of the following Ministries/Departments is concerned with matters related to the Hotel Corporation of India ?

Ministry of Civil Aviation

Ministry of Tourism

Department of Public Enterprises

Department of Commerce

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The Hotel Corporation of India (HCI) is a public sector undertaking that was historically a subsidiary of Air India. As Air India was under the administrative control of the Ministry of Civil Aviation, matters related to HCI were also primarily concerned with the Ministry of Civil Aviation.

– HCI operates hotels like Centaur Hotels. These were primarily aimed at supporting Air India’s operations and passenger needs.
– The Ministry of Civil Aviation oversees air transport, airports, and associated services, which included Air India and its subsidiaries like HCI before privatization.

– Air India was privatized in 2022 and is now under the Tata Group. However, some assets like HCI hotels were transferred to a Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) under the Ministry of Civil Aviation for eventual divestment. The question likely pertains to the traditional administrative setup before these recent changes.

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38. Which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. A person above

Which of the following statements is/are correct ?

1. A person above the age of thirty-five years is eligible for President of India.
2. A person is qualified for election as President of India if he/she is qualified for election as a member of the House of the People.
3. A person is not eligible for election as President of India if he/she holds an office of profit.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1 and 2 only

2 only

1, 2 and 3

3 only

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All three statements are correct regarding the qualifications for election as President of India, as laid down in Article 58 of the Constitution.

– Statement 1 is correct: Article 58(1)(a) requires a person to have completed the age of thirty-five years.
– Statement 2 is correct: Article 58(1)(b) requires a person to be qualified for election as a member of the House of the People (Lok Sabha).
– Statement 3 is correct: Article 58(2) states that a person shall not be eligible for election as President if he holds any office of profit under the Union or State Government or any local or other authority subject to the control of any of the said Governments. However, certain offices like President, Vice-President, Governor of a State, and Minister for the Union or any State are not considered offices of profit for this purpose.

– Besides qualifications, Article 58 also mentions that the person must be a citizen of India.
– The exceptions to the office of profit rule are explicitly mentioned in Article 58(2) itself.

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39. A Member of Lok Sabha does not become disqualified to continue as a

A Member of Lok Sabha does not become disqualified to continue as a Member of the House if the person

voluntarily gives up his/her membership of the political party from which he/she was elected

is expelled by the political party from which he/she had been elected to the House

joins a political party after being elected as an independent candidate

abstains from voting contrary to the direction issued by his/her political party

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The correct answer is B. A Member of Lok Sabha does not automatically become disqualified to continue as a Member of the House merely by being expelled by the political party from which he/she had been elected. The grounds for disqualification under the Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Law) are specifically defined.

– Grounds for disqualification under the Tenth Schedule include voluntarily giving up membership of the political party, voting or abstaining contrary to the party whip without prior permission (and such action is not condoned by the party within 15 days), an independent member joining a political party, and a nominated member joining a political party after the expiry of six months from the date of taking seat.
– Expulsion from the political party *itself* is not listed as a direct ground for disqualification under the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution. A member who is expelled may still face disqualification if their subsequent actions (e.g., voting against the whip of the party from which they were originally elected) fall under the listed grounds.

– The 52nd Amendment Act of 1985 added the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution, laying down the provisions relating to disqualification on grounds of defection.
– The decision on disqualification under the Tenth Schedule is made by the presiding officer of the House (Speaker in Lok Sabha, Chairman in Rajya Sabha).

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40. Which one of the following languages is not recognized in the Eighth

Which one of the following languages is not recognized in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India ?

English

Sanskrit

Urdu

Nepali

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The correct answer is A. English is not recognized in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India.

The Eighth Schedule lists the languages recognized by the Constitution of India. Initially, it had 14 languages. Currently, there are 22 languages listed in the Eighth Schedule. These are: Assamese, Bengali, Bodo, Dogri, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Maithili, Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Odia, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Santhali, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu.

English is an official language of the Union (along with Hindi) and is widely used for official purposes and as a medium of instruction and communication, but it does not have the status of a ‘recognized language’ under the Eighth Schedule. Sanskrit, Urdu, and Nepali are all listed in the Eighth Schedule.

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