UPSC SO-Steno

11. Defence Research and Development Organisation has successfully carried

Defence Research and Development Organisation has successfully carried out joint user trials of indigenously developed Helina and Dhruvastra Anti-Tank Guided Missiles (ATGM) from the Advanced Light Helicopter in

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Odisha
Rajasthan
Tamil Nadu
Punjab
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UPSC SO-Steno – 2017
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Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) successfully conducted joint user trials of the indigenously developed Helina (Army version) and Dhruvastra (Air Force version) Anti-Tank Guided Missiles (ATGMs) from the Advanced Light Helicopter (ALH) in Rajasthan. These trials took place at the Pokhran range.
Helina and Dhruvastra are helicopter-launched versions of the Nag ATGM, designed to engage and destroy enemy tanks and armoured vehicles.
Pokhran range in Rajasthan is a significant test site for various missile systems and defence technologies developed by DRDO and the Indian armed forces.

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12. Which one of the following became the first State or Union Territory i

Which one of the following became the first State or Union Territory in India to launch Carbon Watch, a mobile application to assess the carbon footprint of an individual ?

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Delhi
Karnataka
Puducherry
Chandigarh
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Chandigarh became the first State or Union Territory in India to launch the mobile application named “Carbon Watch”. This application is designed to assess the carbon footprint of an individual.
The initiative aims to make citizens aware of their environmental impact and encourages them to adopt more sustainable practices to reduce carbon emissions.
The “Carbon Watch” app allows individuals to calculate their carbon footprint based on factors like energy consumption, transport, waste generation, and water usage, and suggests actions to reduce it.

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13. The Indian shooting contingent has topped the medals tally in the firs

The Indian shooting contingent has topped the medals tally in the first-ever Asian Online Shooting Championship, organised by

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Kuwait Shooting Federation
Japan Shooting Federation
Taiwan Shooting Federation
Israel Shooting Federation
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The first-ever Asian Online Shooting Championship, where the Indian shooting contingent topped the medals tally, was organised by the Kuwait Shooting Federation.
Holding shooting championships online became a practice in response to restrictions imposed by the COVID-19 pandemic, allowing athletes to compete remotely.
The championship provided valuable competitive exposure to shooters despite the global challenges posed by the pandemic and highlighted the growing prowess of Indian shooters.

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14. A team of scientists, doctors and photographers have launched a mobile

A team of scientists, doctors and photographers have launched a mobile application named “Snakepedia” that will present all relevant information on snakes, to help the public as well as doctors in treating snake bites. The team belongs to which one of the following states ?

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Kerala
Madhya Pradesh
Tamil Nadu
Uttar Pradesh
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The mobile application “Snakepedia,” aimed at providing comprehensive information on snakes to help both the public and medical professionals, was launched by a team of scientists, doctors, and photographers belonging to Kerala.
The app was developed in the context of Kerala’s rich biodiversity and the prevalence of snake-related incidents, highlighting a public health and conservation initiative.
The app serves as a digital encyclopedia and a guide for identifying snakes and providing appropriate medical aid in case of bites, featuring photographs and descriptions of various snake species found in the region.

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15. Which of the following statements is/are correct? Under the Right to I

Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Under the Right to Information Act, 2005, when only a part of the information is supplied severing the same from the rest of the information which cannot be supplied, the applicant must be given notice indicating

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  • 1. reasons for the severance.
  • 2. address of the authority which had taken the decision.
  • 3. his/her right to review the decision.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
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Under Section 10(1) of the Right to Information Act, 2005, when only part of the information requested can be supplied (severing the exempt part), the Public Information Officer must give a notice stating the reasons for the decision (Statement 1 is correct) and informing the applicant of their rights with respect to the review of the decision (Statement 3 is correct), which refers to the right to appeal under Section 19. The Act requires providing the name and designation of the person giving the decision [Section 10(1)(b)], but not explicitly the address of the authority (Statement 2 is incorrect).
Section 10 of the RTI Act ensures that when information is partially denied, the applicant is informed of the justification for the denial and their right to challenge the decision.
The notice under Section 10(1) also requires details of the fees for obtaining the supplied information and findings on any material question of fact related to the severance decision.

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16. A Northrop Grumman-built Cygnus cargo ship, a space supply ship to car

A Northrop Grumman-built Cygnus cargo ship, a space supply ship to carry vital supplies for astronauts on the International Space Station (ISS), was launched by

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ISRO
Space X
NASA
Skylab
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Northrop Grumman-built Cygnus cargo ships are launched to the International Space Station as part of NASA’s Commercial Resupply Services program. While Northrop Grumman built the spacecraft and initially used their Antares rocket, they have also contracted with other launch providers. SpaceX’s Falcon 9 rocket has been used to launch Cygnus missions, especially in recent times when other launch vehicles were unavailable. Therefore, SpaceX is a correct answer for who launched a Cygnus cargo ship.
Cygnus is a spacecraft for delivering cargo to the ISS. The company that builds the spacecraft (Northrop Grumman) is not always the company that provides the launch vehicle and services.
NASA is the customer for the service (delivery of cargo to ISS) but typically procures launch services from commercial providers like SpaceX, United Launch Alliance (ULA, which operates Atlas V), or Northrop Grumman (Antares). The question asks who “launched” it, which refers to the entity operating the launch vehicle.

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17. Which of the following statements relating to the citizenship of India

Which of the following statements relating to the citizenship of India is/are correct?

  • A person born outside India on or after January 26, 1950, but before 10th day of December 1992, if his/her father is a citizen of India at the time of his/her birth shall be a citizen of India by descent.
  • A foreigner who is being illegal migrant can acquire Indian citizenship on application for naturalization to the Government of India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

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1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
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Statement 1 is correct. According to Section 4 of the Citizenship Act, 1955, as it stood before the amendment in 1992, a person born outside India on or after January 26, 1950, was a citizen of India by descent if their father was a citizen of India at the time of their birth. This rule was in effect until the amendment that came into force on December 10, 1992, which allowed citizenship by descent if either parent was a citizen.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Citizenship Act, 1955, explicitly prohibits “illegal migrants” from acquiring Indian citizenship by naturalization. While the Citizenship Amendment Act, 2019 created a special pathway for specific categories of illegal migrants from certain countries to become citizens, this is not through the general process of naturalization under Section 6 of the Act, and the statement is a broad generalization that is incorrect under the existing citizenship law framework for illegal migrants.
An illegal migrant is defined as a foreigner who enters India without valid travel documents or stays beyond the permitted period of time. The 1992 amendment to the Citizenship Act, 1955 made the rule for citizenship by descent gender-neutral, allowing citizenship if either parent was an Indian citizen at the time of birth abroad.

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18. Which one of following statements is not correct under the Right to

Which one of following statements is not correct under the Right to Information Act, 2005?

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No specific qualifications have been prescribed for appointment as Information Commissioner.
An Information Commissioner holds office at the pleasure of the President.
No person can be appointed as Information Commissioner unless he is a person of eminence in public life.
An Information Commissioner must have wide knowledge and experience in law, science and technology, social service, management, journalism, mass media or administration and governance.
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Statement B is incorrect. An Information Commissioner holds office for a term prescribed by the Central Government (as per the RTI Amendment Act, 2019) or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier (as per the original Act, and the age limit is generally retained even with changes in tenure length prescribed by the government). They can only be removed from office under specific grounds like proved misbehaviour or incapacity, following a procedure involving an inquiry, as laid down in Section 14 of the RTI Act. They do not hold office at the pleasure of the President, which would imply the President can remove them at any time without cause.
The tenure and removal process of Information Commissioners are defined by the RTI Act, 2005 (and its amendments), ensuring a degree of security of tenure, unlike holding office “at the pleasure” of the executive head.
Statements A, C, and D reflect provisions of Section 12(5) of the RTI Act, 2005, which states that the Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners shall be persons of eminence in public life with wide knowledge and experience in specified fields. While it doesn’t prescribe formal educational degrees, it specifies necessary attributes and experience, functioning as qualifications. Therefore, statement A (“No specific qualifications have been prescribed”) is also technically incorrect as criteria are indeed prescribed, but statement B is the most definitively incorrect legal statement about the nature of their office tenure.

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19. Which of the following statements relating to the Constitution (74 th

Which of the following statements relating to the Constitution (74th Amendment) Act is/are correct?

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  • It was passed to constitute Municipalities.
  • It provides for elections to Municipalities.
  • It has inserted Part IX A.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

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1 only
2 only
1 and 2
1, 2 and 3
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Statements 1, 2, and 3 are all correct regarding the Constitution (74th Amendment) Act. This amendment constitutionalized urban local self-government bodies, providing for their establishment and functioning.
The 74th Amendment mandated the constitution of Municipalities (Statement 1), ensured regular elections to these bodies (Statement 2) by introducing provisions for an Election Commission for Municipalities (Article 243K read with 243ZA), and added Part IXA (‘The Municipalities’) to the Constitution (Statement 3).
The 74th Amendment Act, 1992 came into force on 1st June 1993. It added the Twelfth Schedule to the Constitution, listing 18 functional items within the purview of Municipalities (Article 243W).

20. Which one of the following types of schools is not covered under the

Which one of the following types of schools is not covered under the Mid Day Meal Scheme (NP-MDMS)?

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Government schools
Government aided schools
Local body schools
Private schools
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Option D is correct. The Mid Day Meal Scheme (NP-MDMS), now PM POSHAN, is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme that covers children studying in Government schools, Government-aided schools, Local body schools, Education Guarantee Scheme (EGS) and Alternative & Innovative Education (AIE) centres, Madarsas and Maqtabs supported under Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA). Private schools are generally not covered under this scheme.
– The Mid Day Meal Scheme aims to provide cooked meals to eligible children in schools.
– The scheme primarily targets government and government-supported educational institutions.
– The objectives of the scheme include improving the nutritional status of children, encouraging poor children to attend school regularly and help them concentrate on classroom activities, and providing nutritional support to children of primary and upper primary stages in drought-affected areas during summer vacation.
– The scheme does not extend to purely private schools that do not receive government aid.

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