UPSC NDA-2 Archives

21. Which statement is NOT correct with reference to Andaman and Nicobar I

Which statement is NOT correct with reference to Andaman and Nicobar Islands ?

Climate is humid, tropical coastal climate

Maximum rainfall occurs between March and April

Andaman and Nicobar islands are separated by 10 degree Channel which is 150 Km wide

Islands are inhabited by Negrito tribes

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC NDA-2 – 2024

Download PDF Attempt Online

Statement A is correct; the islands have a humid, tropical coastal climate with high temperatures and humidity throughout the year. Statement C is correct; the 10 Degree Channel separates the Andaman and Nicobar island groups, and its width is approximately 150 km. Statement D is correct; the indigenous population of the Andaman Islands includes Negrito tribes like the Jarawas, Sentinelese, Onges, and Great Andamanese. Statement B is incorrect; while March and April are part of the hotter pre-monsoon season, the maximum rainfall in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands occurs during the monsoon season, primarily from May/June to November, influenced by the Southwest and Northeast monsoons.

The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are characterized by a tropical climate, distinct geographical separation by the 10 Degree Channel, diverse indigenous populations, and rainfall patterns dominated by the monsoon seasons.

The capital of Andaman and Nicobar Islands is Port Blair. The highest point is Saddle Peak (North Andaman). The islands are geologically part of an underwater mountain range extension of the Arakan Mountains of Myanmar.

Join Our Telegram Channel

22. Any land that is left fallow for more than five years is termed as

Any land that is left fallow for more than five years is termed as

Join Our Telegram Channel

Current fallow

Fallow other than current fallow

Culturable waste land

Barren and waste land

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC NDA-2 – 2024

Download PDF Attempt Online

In land use classification, ‘Culturable Waste Land’ is defined as land that is available for cultivation but has not been cultivated for more than five consecutive years. This category includes land left fallow for an extended period, overgrown with bushes or forests, or covered with sand, which can be brought under cultivation with effort. ‘Current fallow’ is land left uncultivated for less than one year, and ‘Fallow other than current fallow’ is land left uncultivated for a period between one and five years. ‘Barren and waste land’ is land which cannot be brought under cultivation easily or at all, such as hills, deserts, etc.

The duration for which land is left uncultivated determines its classification as current fallow, old fallow (fallow other than current fallow), or culturable waste land.

Land use statistics are crucial for agricultural planning and resource management. Changes in these categories over time can indicate trends in agricultural practices, land degradation, or successful land reclamation efforts.

23. Before the inception of the First Five year Plan, which among the foll

Before the inception of the First Five year Plan, which among the following Plans were initiated in India ?

1. Bombay Plan
2. Peoples Plan
3. Sarvodaya Plan
4. Gandhian Plan

Select the answer using the code given below :

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC NDA-2 – 2024

Download PDF Attempt Online

Before India’s independence and the formal launch of the First Five Year Plan in 1951, several economic plans were formulated by different groups and individuals. The Bombay Plan was proposed by a group of leading Indian industrialists in 1944. The Gandhian Plan was drafted by S.N. Agarwal in 1944, based on Gandhian principles. The People’s Plan was put forth by M.N. Roy in 1945, advocating for decentralized planning. The Sarvodaya Plan was formulated by Jayaprakash Narayan in 1950, drawing inspiration from Gandhian and Sarvodaya ideals. All four mentioned plans predate the First Five Year Plan of 1951-1956.

Various plans were proposed in India before the official Five Year Plans commenced in 1951, reflecting different economic ideologies and priorities.

These early plans influenced the thinking behind India’s post-independence economic development strategy, which eventually adopted a mixed economy framework with centralized planning initially, influenced by the state-led models.

Join Our Telegram Channel

24. Which among the following statements with regard to Five Year Plans in

Which among the following statements with regard to Five Year Plans in India is/are correct ?

1. The First and Ninth five year plans accorded high priority to agriculture
2. The Third Plan was based on the Harrod-Domar Model
3. Seventh Plan focused on food, work and productivity
4. The Ninth five year plan emphasized on massive investments in public sector

Select the answer using the code given below :

Join Our Telegram Channel

1 only

1 and 3

3 and 4

1, 2 and 4

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC NDA-2 – 2024

Download PDF Attempt Online

Statement 1 is correct. The First Five Year Plan (1951-1956) accorded high priority to agriculture, aiming to overcome food shortages and address inflationary pressures. The Ninth Five Year Plan (1997-2002) also emphasized agriculture and rural development as a key area for achieving the goal of ‘Growth with Social Justice and Equity’. Statement 3 is correct. The Seventh Five Year Plan (1985-1990) had ‘Food, Work and Productivity’ as its main objectives, focusing on generating productive employment and increasing food production. Statement 2 is incorrect. The First Five Year Plan was based on the Harrod-Domar model. The Third Plan (1961-1966) used aspects of the Mahalanobis model and faced significant challenges. Statement 4 is incorrect. The Ninth Five Year Plan, operating in the post-liberalization era, emphasized economic reforms, efficiency, productivity, and encouraging the private sector, rather than massive investments solely in the public sector as was characteristic of earlier plans.

The First Plan prioritized agriculture, and the Seventh Plan focused on food, work, and productivity. The models used and the emphasis on public vs. private sector investment varied across plans.

The First Plan focused on primary sector development. The Second Plan focused on rapid industrialization (Mahalanobis model). The Third Plan aimed at self-sufficiency in food grains and expansion of basic industries. The Seventh Plan was formulated during the leadership of Rajiv Gandhi.

25. Which among the following is/are the objective(s) of setting up of Pla

Which among the following is/are the objective(s) of setting up of Planning Commission in the 1950s in India ?

Join Our Telegram Channel

1. To increase production and offering opportunities to all for employment
2. To make assessment of all resources of the country

Select the answer using the code given below :

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC NDA-2 – 2024

Download PDF Attempt Online

The Planning Commission was established by a Resolution of the Government of India in March 1950. Its stated objectives included assessing the country’s resources, formulating plans for their effective and balanced utilization, and determining priorities for development. These plans aimed at increasing production and providing opportunities for employment, alongside raising the standard of living. Therefore, both statements accurately reflect the objectives behind the creation of the Planning Commission.

The Planning Commission was tasked with planning for the economic and social development of India, focusing on resource mobilization and utilization to achieve growth and employment.

The Planning Commission was an extra-constitutional body. It was replaced by NITI Aayog in 2015. The First Five Year Plan (1951-1956) was formulated based on the recommendations of the Planning Commission.

26. Who among the following was the last Governor-General of India before

Who among the following was the last Governor-General of India before the office was permanently abolished ?

Lord Mountbatten

Chakravarti Rajagopalachari

Lord Wavell

Lord Linlithgow

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC NDA-2 – 2024

Download PDF Attempt Online

The correct answer is B. Chakravarti Rajagopalachari was the last Governor-General of India.

– After India gained independence from British rule on August 15, 1947, the post of Viceroy was replaced by that of Governor-General of the Dominion of India.
– The first Governor-General of independent India was Lord Mountbatten (August 1947 – June 1948).
– Following Lord Mountbatten, Chakravarti Rajagopalachari (C. Rajagopalachari) became the first and only Indian to hold the office of Governor-General of India (June 1948 – January 1950).
– When India became a Republic on January 26, 1950, the office of Governor-General was abolished, and the President of India became the constitutional head of the state.
– Therefore, C. Rajagopalachari was the last person to serve as the Governor-General of India.
– Lord Wavell was Viceroy of India before Mountbatten.
– Lord Linlithgow was Viceroy of India during World War II.

Chakravarti Rajagopalachari, also known as ‘Rajaji’, was a prominent leader of the Indian National Congress, a freedom fighter, and later served as the Chief Minister of Madras State. His appointment as Governor-General marked a significant transition to Indian leadership at the highest level before the adoption of the republican constitution.

Join Our Telegram Channel

27. Taxila was the capital of which one among the following Mahajanapadas

Taxila was the capital of which one among the following Mahajanapadas of ancient India ?

Join Our Telegram Channel

Kuru

Kasi

Gandhar

Avanti

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC NDA-2 – 2024

Download PDF Attempt Online

The correct answer is C. Taxila (Takshashila) was the capital of the ancient Mahajanapada of Gandhara.

– Gandhara was one of the sixteen Mahajanapadas, powerful kingdoms or oligarchic republics that existed in ancient India from the 6th to 4th centuries BCE.
– It was located in the northwest part of the Indian subcontinent, in parts of modern-day Afghanistan and Pakistan.
– Its capital cities were Purushapura (modern Peshawar) and Takshashila (Taxila). Taxila was a major center of learning and commerce.
– The other options are incorrect:
– Kuru: Capital was Hastinapura or Indraprastha, located in the Delhi-Haryana region.
– Kasi: Capital was Varanasi, located in modern-day Uttar Pradesh.
– Avanti: Capital was Ujjayini or Mahishmati, located in modern-day Madhya Pradesh.

The Mahajanapada period was a significant phase in early Indian history, marking the consolidation of political power into larger states following the Vedic period. Gandhara was known for its unique Gandhara school of art, which showed Greek influence.

28. For an electric circuit given below, the correct combination of voltag

For an electric circuit given below, the correct combination of voltage (V) and current (I) is

Join Our Telegram Channel

V = 900 V; I = 18 A

V = 300 V; I = 5.5 A

V = 600 V; I = 1 A

V = 300 V; I = 2 A

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC NDA-2 – 2024

Download PDF Attempt Online

Assuming the circuit diagram (not visible) represents a setup where a voltage of 300 V results in a current of 2 A, then option D is the correct combination. This implies the equivalent resistance of the circuit connected to the voltage source is 150 Ω (since V = IR, R = V/I = 300V / 2A = 150 Ω).

– Ohm’s Law (V = IR) relates the voltage (V) across a component or circuit, the current (I) flowing through it, and its resistance (R).
– For a complete circuit with a voltage source and an equivalent resistance R_eq, the total voltage V supplied by the source is related to the total current I flowing out of the source by V = I * R_eq.
– The question provides possible pairs of total voltage (V) and total current (I) for an electric circuit. We can calculate the implied equivalent resistance (R_eq = V/I) for each pair:
– A) V = 900 V, I = 18 A => R_eq = 900/18 = 50 Ω
– B) V = 300 V, I = 5.5 A => R_eq = 300/5.5 ≈ 54.55 Ω
– C) V = 600 V, I = 1 A => R_eq = 600/1 = 600 Ω
– D) V = 300 V, I = 2 A => R_eq = 300/2 = 150 Ω
– The circuit diagram would define the value of R_eq based on the configuration and values of its components (resistors, etc.). Without the diagram, we must assume that one of these calculated R_eq values corresponds to the actual circuit’s equivalent resistance. Assuming option D is correct, the circuit must have an equivalent resistance of 150 Ω when connected to a 300 V source or when a 2 A current flows through it resulting in a 300 V drop.

To definitively solve this problem, the circuit diagram showing the voltage source(s) and resistor network is required. The calculation of the equivalent resistance from the diagram would then confirm which (V, I) pair from the options is consistent with Ohm’s Law and the circuit’s resistance. Standard resistor values and combinations often yield resistances like 50, 150, 600 ohms.

29. Which one of the following sketches correctly describes a lever of sec

Which one of the following sketches correctly describes a lever of second class ?

Join Our Telegram Channel

Sketch (a) showing Fulcrum at one end, Load in the middle, Effort at the other end.

Sketch (b) showing Fulcrum at one end, Effort in the middle, Load at the other end.

Sketch (c) showing Fulcrum in the middle, Load at one end, Effort at the other end.

Sketch (d) showing Fulcrum at one end, Load in the middle, Effort at the other end.

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC NDA-2 – 2024

Download PDF Attempt Online

Assuming Sketch (a) shows the configuration with the Fulcrum at one end, the Load in the middle, and the Effort at the other end, it correctly describes a lever of the second class.

– Levers are simple machines consisting of a rigid bar that pivots around a fixed point called the fulcrum. Forces are applied to the lever: the effort (the force applied by the user) and the load (the force exerted by the object being moved or worked on).
– Levers are classified into three classes based on the relative positions of the fulcrum (F), the load (L), and the effort (E).
– Class 1 Lever: F is between E and L (E – F – L or L – F – E). Examples: seesaw, crowbar.
– Class 2 Lever: L is between F and E (F – L – E). Examples: wheelbarrow, nutcracker, bottle opener.
– Class 3 Lever: E is between F and L (F – E – L). Examples: tweezers, fishing rod, forearm lifting a weight.
– The question asks for a second-class lever. In a second-class lever, the Load is always located between the Fulcrum and the Effort.
– Option A’s description (“Fulcrum at one end, Load in the middle, Effort at the other end”) matches the configuration of a Class 2 lever (F – L – E).
– Option B describes a Class 3 lever (F – E – L).
– Option C describes a Class 1 lever (E – F – L or L – F – E, specifically F in the middle).
– Option D’s description is identical to Option A’s. Without seeing the sketches, we rely on the description provided in the options. Assuming Sketch (a) corresponds to the description in A and is a visual representation of F-L-E, then A is correct.

Second-class levers always provide a mechanical advantage greater than 1 (MA > 1), meaning the effort required is less than the load force, because the effort arm (distance from fulcrum to effort) is always longer than the load arm (distance from fulcrum to load).

30. Which one among the following diagrams may correctly represent the mot

Which one among the following diagrams may correctly represent the motion of a skydiver during a jump ?

Join Our Telegram Channel

Diagram (a)

Diagram (b)

Diagram (c)

Diagram (d)

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC NDA-2 – 2024

Download PDF Attempt Online

Assuming Diagram (b) represents a velocity-time graph showing an initial increase in velocity with decreasing acceleration, followed by reaching a constant terminal velocity, it correctly represents the motion of a skydiver during a jump.

– When a skydiver jumps, their initial velocity is zero.
– The primary force acting initially is gravity, causing downward acceleration approximately equal to g (acceleration due to gravity). The skydiver’s velocity increases rapidly.
– As the skydiver’s velocity increases, air resistance (drag force) becomes significant. Drag force opposes the motion and increases with speed (often proportional to v or v²).
– The net downward force is the difference between gravity and drag (F_net = mg – F_drag). The acceleration is F_net/m.
– As speed increases, drag increases, so the net force decreases. This means the acceleration decreases over time.
– The velocity continues to increase, but the rate of increase slows down.
– Eventually, the drag force becomes equal in magnitude to the force of gravity. At this point, the net force is zero, and the acceleration is zero. The skydiver then falls at a constant velocity called terminal velocity.
– A velocity-time graph for this motion would start at v=0, show the velocity increasing with a slope (acceleration) that decreases over time, and finally level off at the terminal velocity. Diagram (b) is the standard representation of this type of motion.

Opening a parachute significantly increases the drag force, causing the skydiver to rapidly decelerate to a much lower terminal velocity, allowing for a safe landing. The graph described here typically represents the motion before the parachute is opened.