UPSC NDA-2 Archives

11. Consider the following statements about Attorney-General in India :

Consider the following statements about Attorney-General in India :

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1. She/he is the first law officer of the Government of India
2. She/he has a right to speak in any House of Parliament without any right to vote
3. She/he is appointed by the President of India
4. She/he is a whole-time counsel for the Government in the court of law

How many of the statements given above is/are correct ?

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UPSC NDA-2 – 2023

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The correct answer is C, meaning three of the given statements are correct.

Statement 1 is correct. The Attorney-General (AG) is the highest law officer of the Government of India (Article 76).
Statement 2 is correct. Under Article 88, the AG has the right to speak in, and otherwise take part in the proceedings of, either House, any joint sitting of the Houses, and any committee of Parliament of which he may be named a member, but does not have a right to vote.
Statement 3 is correct. The Attorney-General is appointed by the President of India (Article 76(1)).
Statement 4 is incorrect. The Attorney-General is not a whole-time counsel for the Government. He or she is not a member of the Union Cabinet and can engage in private legal practice, provided it does not conflict with their duties to the Government.

The AG holds office during the pleasure of the President. To be appointed as AG, a person must be qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court. The AG advises the Government of India on legal matters and performs other legal duties assigned by the President.

12. Which one of the following provisions of the Constitution of India dea

Which one of the following provisions of the Constitution of India deals with District Planning Committee ?

243ZD

243ZB

243ZE

243ZC

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The correct answer is A. Article 243ZD of the Constitution of India deals with the District Planning Committee.

Part IXA of the Constitution (inserted by the 74th Amendment Act, 1992) deals with Municipalities. Article 243ZD mandates the constitution of a Committee for District Planning in every District to consolidate the plans prepared by the Panchayats and the Municipalities in the District and to prepare a draft development plan for the District as a whole.

Article 243ZB deals with the continuance of existing laws and Municipalities. Article 243ZC deals with the bar to interference by Courts in electoral matters relating to Municipalities. Article 243ZE deals with the Committee for Metropolitan Planning.

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13. Which among the following statements regarding the election of non-per

Which among the following statements regarding the election of non-permanent members to the United Nations Security Council is/are correct ?

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1. Five members coming from Africa and Asia, one from Eastern Europe, two from Latin America and two from Western Europe and other states
2. Six members are elected each year by the General Assembly for two year term

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

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The correct answer is A, meaning only statement 1 is correct.

Statement 1 correctly describes the regional distribution of the 10 non-permanent seats on the UN Security Council: 3 from Africa, 2 from Asia-Pacific (total 5 from Africa and Asia), 1 from Eastern Europe, 2 from Latin America and Caribbean, and 2 from Western Europe and Others.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The 10 non-permanent members are elected for two-year terms, with five members retiring each year and five new members being elected each year by the General Assembly. Therefore, five, not six, members are elected each year.

The United Nations Security Council is composed of 15 members: five permanent members (China, France, Russian Federation, United Kingdom, and United States) and ten non-permanent members. The non-permanent members are elected by the UN General Assembly by a two-thirds majority.

14. Consider the following statements with reference to the Bhoodan Moveme

Consider the following statements with reference to the Bhoodan Movement:

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1. Vinoba Bhave organized ‘The Sarvodaya Samaj’ to take up the work of non-violent transformation in India
2. Jayaprakash Narayan withdrew from active politics to join the Bhoodan Movement in 1953
3. In the wake of the Bhoodan Movement the first donation of land was made in the village of Pochampalli in Telangana

How many of the statements given above is/are correct ?

None

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UPSC NDA-2 – 2023

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The correct answer is B, meaning two of the given statements are correct.

Statement 1 is correct. Vinoba Bhave established the Sarvodaya Samaj to promote non-violent social and economic transformation, including through movements like Bhoodan.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Jayaprakash Narayan withdrew from active party politics in 1954 (not 1953) to dedicate himself to the Sarvodaya movement, which encompassed Bhoodan.
Statement 3 is correct. The Bhoodan Movement originated in the village of Pochampalli, then in Andhra Pradesh (now in Telangana), where Vinoba Bhave received the first land donation.

The Bhoodan Movement (Land Gift Movement) was a voluntary land reform movement in India started by Vinoba Bhave in 1951. Its goal was to persuade wealthy landowners to voluntarily donate a portion of their land to be redistributed among the landless poor. The movement later evolved into the Gramdan movement, focusing on collective ownership of villages.

15. How many of the following materials can be attracted by a magnet ? 1.

How many of the following materials can be attracted by a magnet ?
1. Plastic
2. Carbon
3. Aluminium
4. Stainless Steel
Select the correct answer using the code given below :

None

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UPSC NDA-2 – 2023

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The correct answer is A. Only one of the listed materials, Stainless Steel (depending on its specific composition), can be attracted by a magnet in the conventional sense.

Magnetically permeable materials are attracted by magnets. Ferromagnetic materials like iron, nickel, cobalt, and some alloys (including certain types of stainless steel) are strongly attracted. Paramagnetic materials like aluminium are weakly attracted. Diamagnetic materials like carbon and plastic are weakly repelled. When a general question asks if a material is “attracted by a magnet,” it usually implies strong attraction (ferromagnetism).

Plastic is typically diamagnetic or paramagnetic, not attracted in practice. Carbon (like graphite) is diamagnetic, weakly repelled. Aluminium is paramagnetic, very weakly attracted, usually considered non-magnetic for everyday purposes. Stainless steel exists in different grades; austenitic stainless steels (e.g., 304, 316) are generally non-magnetic, while ferritic (e.g., 430) and martensitic (e.g., 410) stainless steels are magnetic due to their higher iron content and crystalline structure. Therefore, some forms of stainless steel *can* be attracted by a magnet.

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16. Which one of the following optical phenomena supports that the light i

Which one of the following optical phenomena supports that the light is a transverse wave ?

Refraction

Diffraction

Interference

Polarization

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Polarization is an optical phenomenon that specifically demonstrates the transverse nature of light waves. Polarization occurs when the oscillations of the wave are restricted to a specific plane or direction perpendicular to the direction of propagation. Only transverse waves, where the oscillations are perpendicular to the direction of travel, can be polarized. Longitudinal waves, such as sound waves in air, oscillate parallel to the direction of propagation and cannot be polarized. Refraction, diffraction, and interference are phenomena that occur with both transverse and longitudinal waves.

– Polarization is the restriction of wave oscillations to a specific plane.
– Only transverse waves can be polarized.
– Refraction, diffraction, and interference occur for both wave types.

Polarization can happen through various methods like absorption (using polaroid filters), reflection (Brewster’s angle), scattering, and birefringence. The observation of polarization in light provided crucial evidence that light is a transverse wave.

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17. A 100 g sphere is moving at a speed of 20 m/s and collides with anothe

A 100 g sphere is moving at a speed of 20 m/s and collides with another sphere of mass 50 g. If the second sphere was at rest prior to the collision and the first sphere comes to rest immediately after the collision, considering the collision to be elastic, the speed of the second sphere would be

10 m/s

20 m/s

30 m/s

40 m/s

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Given:
Mass of first sphere (m1) = 100 g = 0.1 kg
Initial velocity of first sphere (u1) = 20 m/s
Mass of second sphere (m2) = 50 g = 0.05 kg
Initial velocity of second sphere (u2) = 0 m/s (at rest)
Final velocity of first sphere (v1) = 0 m/s (comes to rest)
Final velocity of second sphere (v2) = ?

For any collision in an isolated system, momentum is conserved.
Conservation of Momentum: m1*u1 + m2*u2 = m1*v1 + m2*v2
(0.1 kg) * (20 m/s) + (0.05 kg) * (0 m/s) = (0.1 kg) * (0 m/s) + (0.05 kg) * v2
2 + 0 = 0 + 0.05 * v2
2 = 0.05 * v2
v2 = 2 / 0.05 = 2 / (5/100) = 2 * (100/5) = 2 * 20 = 40 m/s.

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While the question states the collision is elastic, the conditions provided (m1=100g, m2=50g, u1=20m/s, u2=0, v1=0) are mathematically inconsistent with a perfectly elastic collision. For an elastic collision with u2=0, v1 = ((m1 – m2) / (m1 + m2)) * u1. Substituting the values, v1 = ((0.1 – 0.05) / (0.1 + 0.05)) * 20 = (0.05/0.15) * 20 = (1/3) * 20 = 20/3 m/s, which is not 0. This means that either the collision was not elastic, or the first sphere did not come to rest.
However, given the multiple-choice format and the need to derive one of the options, the value v2 = 40 m/s is obtained directly from the conservation of momentum equation using the provided initial and final states. It is common in flawed physics problems in exams that one must rely on the most directly applicable principle (momentum conservation) and the given numbers, even if they contradict another stated condition (elasticity). Therefore, assuming the initial conditions and the final velocity of the first sphere are as stated, and momentum is conserved, the speed of the second sphere is 40 m/s.

– In any collision in an isolated system, momentum is conserved.
– For an elastic collision, kinetic energy is also conserved.
– The given conditions in this question are contradictory for a perfectly elastic collision.
– The answer is derived using conservation of momentum and the provided values, including the final velocity of the first sphere.

If the collision were truly elastic with the given masses and initial velocities, the final velocities would be v1 = 20/3 m/s and v2 = 80/3 m/s. Since 40 m/s is an option and is derivable from the given conditions via momentum conservation, it is the most likely intended answer despite the inconsistency.

18. Which one of the following statements is true for sound waves propagat

Which one of the following statements is true for sound waves propagating in air ?

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Sound is an electromagnetic wave and transverse in nature

Sound is a mechanical wave and longitudinal in nature

Sound is a mechanical wave and transverse in nature

Sound is an electromagnetic wave and longitudinal in nature

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Sound waves require a medium (like air, water, or solids) to travel, meaning they are mechanical waves. They propagate through the vibration of particles of the medium. In air, sound waves cause compressions and rarefactions as the air particles oscillate back and forth in the same direction as the wave is moving. This type of wave where particle oscillation is parallel to the direction of wave propagation is called a longitudinal wave. Electromagnetic waves, like light, do not require a medium and are transverse, with electric and magnetic fields oscillating perpendicular to the direction of propagation.

– Sound waves are mechanical waves because they need a medium to travel.
– In fluids (like air and water), sound waves are longitudinal waves, meaning particle motion is parallel to wave propagation.
– In solids, sound can propagate as both longitudinal and transverse waves.

Examples of longitudinal waves include sound waves in air, pressure waves, and seismic P-waves. Examples of transverse waves include light waves, radio waves, waves on a string, and seismic S-waves (in solids).

19. Which one of the following graphs represents the equation of motion v

Which one of the following graphs represents the equation of motion v = u + at; where all quantities are non-zero and symbols carry their usual meanings ?

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(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

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The equation of motion is given by v = u + at, where:
– v is the final velocity
– u is the initial velocity
– a is the acceleration (constant)
– t is the time
This equation is in the form of a linear equation y = mx + c, where v is the dependent variable (y), t is the independent variable (x), ‘a’ is the slope (m), and ‘u’ is the y-intercept (c). The problem states that all quantities (u, a, v, t) are non-zero, except t=0 at the start.
A graph of v versus t for this equation should be a straight line.
Since ‘u’ is non-zero, the line will intersect the v-axis (at t=0) at a point other than the origin.
Since ‘a’ is non-zero, the slope of the line will not be zero (the line is not horizontal).
Considering these points, graph (c) represents a straight line with a positive y-intercept (u > 0) and a positive slope (a > 0). While ‘a’ could be negative (negative slope) or ‘u’ could be negative (negative intercept), option (c) is the only graph that shows a straight line with a non-zero intercept and a non-zero slope, fitting the general form v = u + at with non-zero u and a. Graphs (a) and (d) are not straight lines, and graph (b) is a straight line passing through the origin, which would represent v = at (i.e., u=0), contrary to the condition that u is non-zero.

– The equation v = u + at represents linear motion with constant acceleration.
– A graph of velocity (v) versus time (t) for this equation is a straight line.
– The y-intercept of the line is the initial velocity (u).
– The slope of the line is the acceleration (a).

If ‘a’ were zero, the graph would be a horizontal line at v = u. If ‘u’ were zero, the line would pass through the origin (v = at). The shape of the line (upward or downward slope) depends on the sign of acceleration ‘a’. Option (c) shows a positive slope (acceleration).

20. Which one of the following pairs of city and industry is NOT correctly

Which one of the following pairs of city and industry is NOT correctly matched ?

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Saharanpur : Paper industry

Chanderi : Cotton textile industry

Bhadohi : Carpet industry

Raniganj : Iron and steel industry

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Let’s examine each pair:
A) Saharanpur : Paper industry. This is correctly matched. Saharanpur in Uttar Pradesh is a well-known center for the paper industry and also famous for wood carving.
B) Chanderi : Cotton textile industry. This is largely correctly matched. Chanderi, in Madhya Pradesh, is famous for Chanderi fabric, which is traditionally made from silk, cotton, or silk-cotton blends, handcrafted into sarees and suits. So, it is a center for cotton textiles (specifically handloom using cotton blends).
C) Bhadohi : Carpet industry. This is correctly matched. Bhadohi in Uttar Pradesh is known as the “Carpet City” of India and is a major hub for hand-knotted carpet weaving.
D) Raniganj : Iron and steel industry. This is NOT correctly matched. Raniganj in West Bengal is historically significant as a major coal mining area and part of the Raniganj Coalfield, India’s first and largest coalfield. While it’s in an industrial belt that includes steel plants (like Durgapur and Burnpur nearby), Raniganj itself is not a center for the Iron and Steel industry but rather for coal mining.
Therefore, the incorrect pair is D.

– Certain cities and regions in India are specialized in specific industries based on resource availability, historical tradition, or market access.
– Identifying the primary industry associated with a place is key.

The location of iron and steel plants is often influenced by proximity to sources of iron ore, coal, limestone, water, and transport networks. Major steel cities include Jamshedpur, Durgapur, Bokaro, Bhilai, Rourkela, and Salem.