UPSC IAS Archives

31. The term “sixth mass extinction/sixth extinction” is often mentioned i

The term “sixth mass extinction/sixth extinction” is often mentioned in the news in the context of the discussion of

Widespread monoculture practices in agriculture and large-scale commercial farming with indiscriminate use of chemicals in many parts of the world that may result in the loss of good native ecosystems.

Fears of a possible collision of a meteorite with the Earth in the near future in the manner it happened 65 million years ago that caused the mass extinction of many species including those of dinosaurs.

Large scale cultivation of genetically modified crops in many parts of the world and promoting their cultivation in other parts of the world which may cause the disappearance of good native crop plants and the loss of food biodiversity.

Mankind's over-exploitation/misuse of natural resources, fragmentation/loss of natural habitats, destruction of ecosystems, pollution and global climate change.

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The term “sixth mass extinction” refers to the current ongoing extinction event, also known as the Holocene extinction.

This extinction event is characterized by an exceptionally high rate of species extinction, significantly above the historical background extinction rate. Unlike previous mass extinctions caused by natural phenomena (like asteroid impacts or volcanic activity), the current one is primarily driven by human activities.

The main drivers of the sixth mass extinction include habitat destruction and fragmentation, over-exploitation of resources (like hunting and fishing), pollution, introduction of invasive species, and climate change caused by human activities. Option D accurately encapsulates these primary causes. Options A and C describe specific aspects of human impact on ecosystems and biodiversity, but are not as comprehensive as D in defining the overall context of the sixth mass extinction. Option B describes a past extinction event.

32. With reference to the circumstances in Indian agriculture, the concept

With reference to the circumstances in Indian agriculture, the concept of ‘Conservation Agriculture’ assumes significance. Which of the following fall under the Conservation Agriculture ?

1. Avoiding the monoculture practices
2. Adopting minimum tillage
3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops
4. Using crop residues to cover soil surface
5. Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotations

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1, 3 and 4

2, 3, 4 and 5

2, 4 and 5

1, 2, 3 and 5

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The correct answer is C) 2, 4 and 5.

Conservation Agriculture (CA) is based on three key principles aimed at sustainable farming: minimum soil disturbance, permanent soil cover, and species diversity.

Let’s evaluate the statements based on CA principles:
1. Avoiding the monoculture practices: This aligns with the principle of species diversification (e.g., crop rotation, intercropping). This is a practice under CA.
2. Adopting minimum tillage: This is one of the three core principles of CA, reducing soil disturbance. This is a practice under CA.
3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops: CA principles are applicable to various cropping systems, including some plantation crops. Avoiding all plantation crops is not a requirement of CA. This statement is incorrect.
4. Using crop residues to cover soil surface: This is the principle of permanent soil cover (mulching), protecting the soil. This is a practice under CA.
5. Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotations: Crop rotation is a primary method for achieving species diversity, a core principle of CA. This is a practice under CA.
Statements 1, 2, 4, and 5 are all relevant practices within Conservation Agriculture. However, examining the options, Option C (2, 4, and 5) includes minimum tillage, soil cover (residues), and crop rotation. While statement 1 (avoiding monoculture) is also correct and related to diversity (like 5), options might prioritize concrete practices over broader principles or goals. Option C lists the three main *practices* that directly embody the core principles: reduced tillage (2), soil cover (4), and diversity via rotation (5). Option 1 (avoiding monoculture) is more of a consequence or goal achieved through practices like rotation. Given the options, C is the best fit comprising key CA practices.

33. The terms ‘WannaCry, Petya and EternalBlue’ sometimes mentioned in the

The terms ‘WannaCry, Petya and EternalBlue’ sometimes mentioned in the news recently are related to

Exoplanets

Cryptocurrency

Cyber attacks

Mini satellites

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The correct answer is C) Cyber attacks.

WannaCry, Petya, and EternalBlue were terms widely reported in the news in 2017 concerning major global cyber incidents.

‘WannaCry’ and ‘Petya’ (or ‘NotPetya’) were names of significant global ransomware or wiper attacks that occurred in May and June 2017, respectively. ‘EternalBlue’ was the name of the specific software exploit (a vulnerability in Microsoft Windows’ Server Message Block protocol) that was utilized by both WannaCry and NotPetya to spread rapidly across networks. These terms are directly associated with large-scale cyber attacks.

34. Consider the following statements : 1. The Earth’s magnetic field ha

Consider the following statements :

1. The Earth’s magnetic field has reversed every few hundred thousand years.
2. When the Earth was created more than 4000 million years ago, there was 54% oxygen and no carbon dioxide.
3. When living organisms originated, they modified the early atmosphere of the Earth.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

1 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

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The correct answer is C) 1 and 3 only.

This question assesses understanding of Earth’s history, including its magnetic field and atmospheric evolution.

1. The Earth’s magnetic field does undergo polarity reversals, where the magnetic North and South poles switch places. Geological records show that these reversals have occurred irregularly throughout Earth’s history, on average every few hundred thousand years. Statement 1 is correct.
2. When the Earth formed over 4 billion years ago, the atmosphere was primarily composed of volcanic gases like water vapor, carbon dioxide, and nitrogen, with little to no free oxygen. An atmosphere with 54% oxygen is not consistent with early Earth conditions; oxygen became abundant much later due to biological activity. Statement 2 is incorrect.
3. The origin and evolution of life, particularly photosynthetic organisms like cyanobacteria, fundamentally altered the Earth’s atmosphere. Through photosynthesis, these organisms consumed carbon dioxide and produced oxygen, leading to the gradual oxygenation of the atmosphere over billions of years (the Great Oxidation Event). Statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are correct.

35. Consider the following statements : 1. The Reserve Bank of India man

Consider the following statements :

1. The Reserve Bank of India manages and services Government of India Securities but not any State Government Securities.
2. Treasury bills are issued by the Government of India and there are no treasury bills issued by the State Governments.
3. Treasury bills offer are issued at a discount from the par value.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

1 and 2 only

3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

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The correct answer is C) 2 and 3 only.

This question pertains to the management of government securities and the characteristics of Treasury Bills in India.

1. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) serves as the banker and debt manager for *both* the Central Government and the State Governments. It manages and services both Government of India Securities (G-Secs) and State Government Securities (State Development Loans – SDLs). Statement 1 is incorrect.
2. Treasury Bills (T-Bills) are short-term money market instruments. In India, T-Bills are issued *only* by the Central Government to meet its short-term funding requirements. State Governments do not issue T-Bills; they raise market borrowings through SDLs. Statement 2 is correct.
3. Treasury Bills are zero-coupon securities, meaning they do not pay interest. They are issued at a discount to their face value (par value) and redeemed at the par value on maturity. The return to the investor is the difference between the maturity value and the issue price (the discount). Statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

36. In which of the following areas can GPS technology be used ? 1. Mobi

In which of the following areas can GPS technology be used ?

1. Mobile phone operations
2. Banking operations
3. Controlling the power grids

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

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The correct answer is D) 1, 2 and 3.

GPS (Global Positioning System) provides precise location and time information, which has applications across numerous sectors.

1. Mobile phone operations: GPS is integral to mobile phones for navigation, location-based services, geotagging, etc.
2. Banking operations: While not used for the transaction itself, GPS time synchronization is crucial for the infrastructure supporting banking, particularly for high-frequency trading, synchronizing transactions across distributed systems, and time-stamping financial data accurately. Location services can also be used for fraud detection or locating services.
3. Controlling the power grids: GPS provides highly accurate timing signals used by devices like Phasor Measurement Units (PMUs) for synchronized measurements (synchrophasors) across the power grid. This precise timing is essential for real-time monitoring, control, and stability analysis of large power systems.
Thus, GPS technology has applications in all three listed areas.

37. Consider the following pairs : Craft Heritage of 1. Puthu

Consider the following pairs :

Craft	Heritage of
1. Puthukkuli shawls	Tamil Nadu
2. Sujni embroidery	Maharashtra
3. Uppada Jamdani saris	Karnataka

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct ?

1 only

1 and 2

3 only

2 and 3

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The correct answer is A) 1 only.

This question tests knowledge of specific Indian traditional crafts and their associated states.

1. Puthukkuli shawls are traditionally woven by the Toda people of the Nilgiri hills in Tamil Nadu. This pair is correct.
2. Sujni embroidery is a form of folk embroidery originating from Bihar, not Maharashtra.
3. Uppada Jamdani saris are woven in Uppada, East Godavari district, in Andhra Pradesh, not Karnataka.
Therefore, only pair 1 is correctly matched.

38. If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Articl

If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then

the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.

the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.

Article 19 is suspended in that State.

the President can make laws relating to that State.

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The correct answer is B) the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.

When President’s Rule is imposed under Article 356, the legislative powers of the state are transferred to the Union Parliament.

Article 356(1)(b) of the Constitution explicitly states that upon the proclamation of President’s Rule, the President may declare that the powers of the Legislature of the State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of Parliament. While the State Assembly may be dissolved or suspended, dissolution is not automatic upon proclamation. Suspension of Article 19 occurs only during a National Emergency under Article 352 on grounds of war or external aggression (Article 358), not automatically under Article 356. The President can make laws for the state, but this power is derived from Parliament, which may delegate its legislative power for the state to the President (Article 357(1)(a)). Option B describes the primary constitutional consequence on the legislative power.

39. Economically, one of the results of the British rule in India in the 1

Economically, one of the results of the British rule in India in the 19th century was the

increase in the export of Indian handicrafts

growth in the number of Indian owned factories

commercialization of Indian agriculture

rapid increase in the urban population

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The correct answer is C) commercialization of Indian agriculture.

British rule in the 19th century significantly restructured the Indian economy, shifting it towards serving British industrial and commercial interests.

One of the most pronounced economic results was the forced commercialization of Indian agriculture. Peasants were increasingly compelled to grow cash crops (like cotton, jute, indigo, tea, opium) for the market, particularly for export to Britain and other parts of the world, rather than primarily growing food grains for local consumption. This policy often led to increased dependence on markets, price fluctuations, vulnerability to famines (as food crop area reduced), and indebtedness among peasants. The export of Indian handicrafts declined due to competition from British machine-made goods and discriminatory policies. Growth in Indian-owned factories was slow and limited compared to the decline of traditional industries. While some urban centers linked to trade grew, a rapid, widespread increase in urban population driven by industrialization was not a defining feature of 19th-century British rule in India.

40. After the Santhal Uprising subsided, what was/were the measure/measure

After the Santhal Uprising subsided, what was/were the measure/measures taken by the colonial government ?

The territories called ‘Santhal Paraganas’ were created.
It became illegal for a Santhal to transfer land to a non-Santhal.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

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The correct answer is C) Both 1 and 2.

Following the Santhal Uprising (1855-56), the colonial government implemented specific administrative and legal measures to address the grievances of the Santhals and prevent future rebellions.

One of the significant outcomes was the creation of the Santhal Parganas district in 1855-56, carved out of parts of Bhagalpur and Rajmahal districts. This was aimed at providing a separate administrative unit for the Santhals. Furthermore, land laws were enacted (like the Santhal Parganas Tenancy Act, 1885, building upon earlier regulations) that made it illegal for a Santhal to transfer land to a non-Santhal, primarily to protect them from exploitation by moneylenders and zamindars who were alienating their land. Both these measures were direct consequences of the uprising aimed at pacification and protection of the Santhals, albeit within the colonial framework.