UPSC IAS Archives

31. With reference to pulse production in India, consider the following st

With reference to pulse production in India, consider the following statements:

1. Black gram can be cultivated as both kharif and rabi crop.
2. Green-gram alone accounts for nearly half of pulse production.
3. In the last three decades, while the production of kharif pulses has increased, the production of rabi pulses has decreased.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

1 only

2 and 3 only

2 only

1, 2 and 3

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UPSC IAS – 2020

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Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 and 3 are incorrect.

Black gram (Urad) is a flexible crop grown in both Kharif (monsoon) and Rabi (winter) seasons depending on the region. Green gram (Moong) is important but does not constitute half of the total pulse production; other pulses like Chickpea (Gram) and Pigeonpea (Arhar) are also major contributors. Over the last three decades, overall pulse production in India has generally increased for both Kharif and Rabi seasons, driven by factors like increased Minimum Support Price (MSP) and improved varieties, although annual variations exist.

India is the largest producer, consumer, and importer of pulses in the world. Major Kharif pulses include Arhar (Pigeonpea), Urad (Black gram), and Moong (Green gram). Major Rabi pulses include Gram (Chickpea), Lentil (Masoor), and Peas.

32. Which one of the following statements best describes the term ‘Social

Which one of the following statements best describes the term ‘Social Cost of Carbon’?
It is a measure, in monetary value, of the

long-term damage done by a tonne of CO₂ emissions in a given year.

requirement of fossil fuels for a country to provide goods and services to its citizens, based on the burning of those fuels.

efforts put in by a climate refugee to adapt to live in a new place.

contribution of an individual person to the carbon footprint on the planet Earth.

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The term ‘Social Cost of Carbon’ is best described as a measure, in monetary value, of the long-term damage done by a tonne of CO₂ emissions in a given year.

The Social Cost of Carbon (SCC) is an economic metric used to estimate the full cost of carbon emissions, including the future impacts of climate change such as changes in agricultural productivity, human health effects, property damage from increased flood risk, and the value of ecosystem services. It attempts to put a monetary value on the future harm caused by emitting one additional unit (typically a tonne) of carbon dioxide today.

SCC estimates are complex and involve predicting future climate impacts and discounting future damages to their present value. They are used by policymakers to evaluate the costs and benefits of policies that affect greenhouse gas emissions, such as carbon taxes, emissions trading schemes, or regulations on pollution.

33. According to India’s National Policy on Biofuels, which of the followi

According to India’s National Policy on Biofuels, which of the following can be used as raw materials for the production of biofuels ?
1. Cassava
2. Damaged wheat grains
3. Groundnut seeds
4. Horse gram
5. Rotten potatoes
6. Sugar beet
Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1, 2, 5 and 6 only

1, 3, 4 and 6 only

2, 3, 4 and 5 only

1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

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UPSC IAS – 2020

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According to India’s National Policy on Biofuels, raw materials like Cassava, Damaged wheat grains, Rotten potatoes, and Sugar beet can be used for the production of biofuels.

India’s National Policy on Biofuels (e.g., the 2018 policy) promotes the use of diverse feedstocks for biofuel production, particularly focusing on non-food based feedstocks (2nd generation) and utilizing damaged/surplus food grains and crops (1st generation under specific conditions). The policy explicitly lists “Sugarcane, Sugar Beet, Sweet Sorghum, Starch containing materials like Corn, Cassava, Damaged food grains like wheat, broken rice, Rotten Potatoes, etc.” as potential feedstocks for ethanol production. Damaged edible oilseeds and non-edible oilseeds are listed for biodiesel production.
From the given list:
1. Cassava: Starch-containing material, listed as a potential feedstock for ethanol.
2. Damaged wheat grains: Explicitly listed as an allowed feedstock for ethanol when unfit for human consumption.
3. Groundnut seeds: Edible oilseed. While damaged edible oilseeds can be used for biodiesel, groundnut is primarily a food crop, and the policy prioritizes non-edible sources or damaged edible sources. It’s less certain as a primary listed source compared to others for bulk biofuel production unless specifically damaged.
4. Horse gram: Pulse (edible). Not typically listed as a primary biofuel feedstock under the policy unless damaged or surplus, similar to other edible grains/pulses.
5. Rotten potatoes: Damaged food crop, explicitly listed as a potential feedstock for ethanol.
6. Sugar beet: Sugar crop, explicitly listed as a potential feedstock for ethanol.

The policy aims to encourage the production of biofuels from a wide range of feedstocks to improve energy security, reduce import bills, manage surplus agricultural produce, and reduce environmental pollution. The focus is increasingly on 2G biofuels from lignocellulosic biomass, but 1G from specified sources like damaged food grains and sugar/starch crops like sugar beet and cassava is also allowed.

34. What is/are the advantage/advantages of zero tillage in agriculture?

What is/are the advantage/advantages of zero tillage in agriculture?

Sowing of wheat is possible without burning the residue of previous crop.
Without the need for nursery of rice saplings, direct planting of paddy seeds in the soil is possible.
Carbon sequestration in the soil is possible.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

3 only

1, 2 and 3

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UPSC IAS – 2020

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All three statements describe advantages of zero tillage in agriculture.

Statement 1 is correct. Zero tillage allows direct sowing of seeds into the soil without plowing or tilling. This method can be used after harvesting the previous crop (e.g., rice) without needing to remove or burn the residue, as the seeds are sown directly through the stubble using specialized equipment. This helps in managing crop residue and prevents environmental pollution caused by burning.
Statement 2 is correct. Direct Seeding of Rice (DSR) is a technique where rice seeds are sown directly into the field, bypassing the need for raising seedlings in a nursery and then transplanting them. Zero tillage systems are compatible with DSR, allowing farmers to transition away from the traditional transplanting method which requires significant water and nursery preparation.
Statement 3 is correct. Zero tillage reduces soil disturbance. Less disturbance helps in retaining soil organic carbon. Over time, this can lead to an increase in the soil’s organic matter content and facilitate carbon sequestration, potentially helping to mitigate climate change.

Other advantages of zero tillage include reduced fuel consumption (less machinery use), lower labor costs, improved soil structure over the long term, better water infiltration, and reduced soil erosion.

35. With reference to the period of Gupta dynasty in ancient India, the to

With reference to the period of Gupta dynasty in ancient India, the towns Ghantasala, Kadura and Chaul were well known as

ports handling foreign trade

capitals of powerful kingdoms

places of exquisite stone art and architecture

important Buddhist pilgrimage centres

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During the Gupta period in ancient India, the towns Ghantasala, Kadura, and Chaul were well known as important ports handling foreign trade.

The Gupta period (c. 320 to 550 CE) was a time of flourishing trade, both internal and external. Coastal towns like Ghantasala (on the east coast, modern Andhra Pradesh), Kadura (potentially another port on the east or west coast), and Chaul (on the west coast, modern Maharashtra) served as vital links in India’s trade network with the Roman Empire, Southeast Asia, and other regions. These ports facilitated the export of goods like textiles, spices, precious stones, and ivory, and the import of items like gold, silver, horses, and luxury goods.

While some of these locations might have had other significance (e.g., religious sites), their primary renown during this period, especially when mentioned together in the context of trade routes, was due to their function as ports. The Gupta economy benefited significantly from this maritime trade.

36. If a particular plant species is placed under Schedule VI of The Wildl

If a particular plant species is placed under Schedule VI of The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, what is the implication?

A licence is required to cultivate that plant.

Such a plant cannot be cultivated under any circumstances.

It is a Genetically Modified crop plant.

Such a plant is invasive and harmful to the ecosystem.

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UPSC IAS – 2020

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If a particular plant species is placed under Schedule VI of The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, it implies that a license is required to cultivate that plant.

Schedule VI of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 lists specific plant species. The cultivation, collection, extraction, and sale of these plants and their derivatives require a license from the Chief Wild Life Warden or an authorized officer. Without a license, such activities are prohibited.

The purpose of placing plants under Schedule VI is generally to protect certain rare, endangered, or commercially important plant species from unsustainable exploitation. Examples of plants listed under Schedule VI include Pitcher Plant, Blue Vanda, Red Vanda, Kuth, Lady’s Slipper Orchid, and plants of the genus Renanthera.

37. Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the largest area und

Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the largest area under “Critical Tiger Habitat”?

Corbett

Ranthambore

Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam

Sunderbans

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UPSC IAS – 2020

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Among the given options, Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve has the largest area designated as “Critical Tiger Habitat”.

Critical Tiger Habitat (CTH), also known as the core area of a tiger reserve, is defined under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, as amended in 2006. It is an area of adequate size, duly notified by the state government, required to be kept inviolate for the purpose of tiger conservation. The total area and CTH area vary between tiger reserves. As of recent data (around the time this question was likely framed or based on common knowledge about large reserves), Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam consistently ranks as having one of the largest, if not the largest, CTH among major tiger reserves in India.

The approximate CTH areas for the given options are:
Corbett Tiger Reserve: ~821 sq km
Ranthambore Tiger Reserve: ~1113 sq km
Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve: ~2595 sq km
Sunderbans Tiger Reserve (Indian part): ~2125 sq km
Based on these figures, Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam has the largest Critical Tiger Habitat area.

38. Consider the following statements: Jet streams occur in the Northern

Consider the following statements:

Jet streams occur in the Northern Hemisphere only.
Only some cyclones develop an eye.
The temperature inside the eye of a cyclone is nearly 10°C lesser than that of the surroundings.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 and 3 only

2 only

1 and 3 only

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UPSC IAS – 2020

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Only statement 2 is correct. Jet streams occur in both hemispheres, and the eye of a tropical cyclone is typically warmer than its surroundings.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Jet streams are fast-flowing, narrow, meandering air currents found in the atmospheres of planets, including Earth. On Earth, major jet streams are located in the upper atmosphere (tropopause) of both the Northern Hemisphere and the Southern Hemisphere.
Statement 2 is correct. Only tropical cyclones, which are intense low-pressure systems, can develop a feature known as an ‘eye’. This eye is a relatively calm, clear region at the center of the storm. Not all cyclones, particularly weaker ones or extra-tropical cyclones, develop a clearly defined eye.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The eye of a tropical cyclone is characterized by subsiding air, which leads to warming. The temperature inside the eye is typically warmer than the surrounding eyewall, sometimes by several degrees Celsius, not lesser by 10°C.

Jet streams play a significant role in influencing weather patterns. The eye of a tropical cyclone is a defining feature of mature, intense storms and is surrounded by the eyewall, which is the region of strongest winds and heaviest rainfall.

39. Consider the following statements : 36% of India’s districts are cl

Consider the following statements :

36% of India’s districts are classified as “overexploited” or “critical” by the Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA).
CGWA was formed under the Environment (Protection) Act.
India has the largest area under groundwater irrigation in the world.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

1 only

2 and 3 only

2 only

1 and 3 only

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UPSC IAS – 2020

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Statements 2 and 3 are correct. The Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) was formed under the Environment (Protection) Act, and India has the largest area under groundwater irrigation globally. Statement 1, regarding 36% of districts being classified as overexploited or critical, is likely an incorrect generalization or based on a misleading interpretation, as CGWA classifies assessment units (blocks, talukas, etc.) rather than entire districts in this manner.

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Central Ground Water Authority assesses groundwater conditions at the level of ‘assessment units’ (blocks, talukas, mandals, watersheds), not typically whole districts. While a significant percentage of assessment units are classified as overexploited or critical (e.g., around 17% overexploited and 5% critical as per 2020 data), it’s inaccurate to state that 36% of *districts* are classified as such.
Statement 2 is correct. The Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) was constituted by the Government of India under Section 3(3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
Statement 3 is correct. India is the world’s largest user of groundwater, primarily for agricultural irrigation. It has the largest area irrigated by groundwater sources globally.

CGWA is tasked with the regulation and control of groundwater development and management in the country. The excessive reliance on groundwater for irrigation and other uses has led to significant depletion of water tables in many parts of India. The assessment of groundwater resources and categorization into safe, semi-critical, critical, and over-exploited blocks is done periodically by the Central Ground Water Board (CGWB) and State Groundwater Departments.

40. With reference to the history of India, consider the following pairs :

With reference to the history of India, consider the following pairs :

1.	Bhilsa	—	Madhya Pradesh
2.	Dwarasamudra	—	Maharashtra
3.	Girinagar	—	Gujarat
4.	Sthanesvara	—	Uttar Pradesh

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched ?

1 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2 and 3 only

2 and 4 only

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UPSC IAS – 2020

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The correctly matched pairs are Bhilsa (Vidisha) with Madhya Pradesh and Girinagar (Junagadh) with Gujarat. Dwarasamudra was in Karnataka, and Sthanesvara was in Haryana.

Pair 1: Bhilsa, historically also known as Vidisha, is located in the present-day state of Madhya Pradesh.
Pair 2: Dwarasamudra was the capital of the Hoysala dynasty, located in present-day Karnataka (modern Halebidu).
Pair 3: Girinagar is the ancient name for Junagadh, a city located in Gujarat.
Pair 4: Sthanesvara, also known as Thanesar, was the capital of the Pushyabhuti dynasty, including Harshavardhana’s kingdom before he moved his capital to Kannauj. Thanesar is located in the present-day state of Haryana.

These ancient place names and their locations are important for understanding the historical geography of India during different periods, including the Gupta era and later. Knowing the locations of major cities, capitals, and cultural centres helps in mapping historical events and administrative divisions.