UPSC IAS

21. Which one of the following statements best describes the ‘Polar Code’?

Which one of the following statements best describes the ‘Polar Code’?

[amp_mcq option1=”It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters.” option2=”It is the agreement of the countries around the North Pole regarding the demarcation of their territories in the polar region.” option3=”It is a set of norms to be followed by the countries whose scientists undertake research studies in the North Pole and South Pole.” option4=”It is a trade and security agreement of the member countries of the Arctic Council.” correct=”option1″]

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The ‘Polar Code’ is indeed the International Code of Safety for Ships Operating in Polar Waters. It was adopted by the International Maritime Organization (IMO) and contains mandatory provisions covering safety (Part I-A) and pollution prevention (Part II-A), and recommendatory provisions covering safety (Part I-B) and pollution prevention (Part II-B). Options B, C, and D describe different types of agreements or activities unrelated to the specific definition of the Polar Code.
The Polar Code establishes international standards for safe ship operation and environmental protection in the harsh conditions of Arctic and Antarctic waters.
The Code addresses unique risks present in polar waters, such as ice navigation, low temperatures, remoteness, and potential environmental impacts. It covers various aspects including ship design, construction, equipment, operational and training requirements. It came into force on January 1, 2017.

22. With reference to the “United Nations Credentials Committee”, consider

With reference to the “United Nations Credentials Committee”, consider the following statements:
1. It is a committee set up by the UN Security Council and works under its supervision.
2. It traditionally meets in March, June and September every year.
3. It assesses the credentials of all UN members before submitting a report to the General Assembly for approval.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”3 only” option2=”1 and 3″ option3=”2 and 3″ option4=”1 and 2″ correct=”option1″]

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Statement 3 is correct. The United Nations Credentials Committee examines the credentials of representatives of Member States and reports to the General Assembly for approval. This is its core function. Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect. The Credentials Committee is a subsidiary body of the General Assembly, not the Security Council, and it does not typically meet in March, June, and September. Its main meeting usually occurs at the beginning of the regular session of the General Assembly in September/October, and it may meet again during the session if necessary.
The UN Credentials Committee is a committee of the General Assembly responsible for verifying the credentials of representatives from Member States.
The Committee consists of nine members appointed by the General Assembly on the proposal of its President. The composition aims to reflect the geographical distribution of the UN membership. Its recommendations are subject to approval by the General Assembly.

23. Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment

Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?

[amp_mcq option1=”Central Water Commission” option2=”Central Ground Water Board” option3=”Central Ground Water Authority” option4=”National Water Development Agency” correct=”option3″]

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The Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) was constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 (EPA) is an umbrella legislation enacted for environmental protection in India. Section 3(3) of the EPA allows the Central Government to constitute an authority or authorities for the purpose of exercising and performing such of the powers and functions of the Central Government under the Act as it may deem fit. The Central Ground Water Authority was constituted by the Central Government under this specific section of the EPA, 1986, to regulate and control development and management of groundwater resources in the country.
– Central Water Commission (CWC) is a technical organization under the Ministry of Jal Shakti, established for general control, conservation, and utilization of water resources.
– Central Ground Water Board (CGWB) is a subordinate office under the Ministry of Jal Shakti, responsible for groundwater exploration, monitoring, assessment, and management. It exists as a board, distinct from the Authority created under EPA.
– National Water Development Agency (NWDA) is an autonomous society under the Ministry of Jal Shakti, primarily involved in studies related to inter-basin transfer of water.

24. Consider the following statements: 1. The India Sanitation Coalition i

Consider the following statements:
1. The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organization.
2. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in Government of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option2″]

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Only statement 2 is correct.
– Statement 2 is correct. The National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA) is indeed an autonomous institute under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, Government of India. It serves as a think tank and research institution providing expertise and innovative solutions for urban development challenges in India.
– Statement 1 is incorrect regarding the funding structure. The India Sanitation Coalition (ISC) is a multi-stakeholder platform hosted by the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII). While it collaborates with the Government of India (e.g., Swachh Bharat Mission) and involves various partners including corporates, NGOs, financial institutions, and civil society, it is not primarily funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organization in the manner implied. WHO may be involved as a technical partner or advisor, but not as a core funder of the coalition itself.

25. If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Consti

If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it?

[amp_mcq option1=”This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.” option2=”This would create a local self-governing body in that area.” option3=”This would convert that area into a Union Territory.” option4=”The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State.” correct=”option1″]

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Bringing an area under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India primarily aims at preventing the transfer of land belonging to tribal people to non-tribal people.
The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in states other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram (which are covered by the Sixth Schedule). A key objective and provision under the Fifth Schedule is to protect the land rights of tribal people. The Governor of a state with Fifth Schedule areas has special powers to make regulations for the peace and good government of these areas, including prohibiting or restricting the transfer of land by tribals to non-tribals and regulating the allotment of land to members of the Scheduled Tribes.
Statement B is partially relevant but not the best reflection of the consequence. While the Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 (PESA), which applies to Fifth Schedule areas, aims to create local self-governing bodies (Gram Sabhas with significant powers), the Fifth Schedule *itself* provides the framework for a special administrative system and land protection, which then enables the implementation of laws like PESA. Statement C is incorrect; Fifth Schedule areas remain part of the state. Statement D is incorrect; Special Category Status is a different classification based on developmental needs, not directly linked to having Fifth Schedule areas.

26. In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller’s Organization (CCO)

In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller’s Organization (CCO)?
1. CCO is the major source of Coal Statistics in Government of India.
2. It monitors progress of development of Captive Coal/Lignite blocks.
3. It hears any objection to the Government’s notification relating to acquisition of coal-bearing areas.
4. It ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

[amp_mcq option1=”1, 2 and 3″ option2=”3 and 4 only” option3=”1 and 2 only” option4=”1, 2 and 4″ correct=”option3″]

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Statements 1 and 2 correctly describe roles of the Coal Controller’s Organization (CCO).
– Statement 1 is correct. The CCO is indeed the primary source of coal statistics in the Government of India, collecting and publishing data on coal production, dispatch, stocks, etc.
– Statement 2 is correct. The CCO monitors the progress of development and production from captive coal and lignite blocks allocated to various companies for their specific end-use projects.
– Statement 3 is incorrect. Objections to notifications regarding acquisition of coal-bearing areas are typically handled under relevant land acquisition laws and legal frameworks, not directly by the CCO.
– Statement 4 is incorrect. The CCO is a regulatory and data-monitoring body. Ensuring timely delivery of coal from mining companies to end users is primarily a matter of commercial agreements and logistics, not a regulatory function of the CCO. The Directorate General of Mines Safety (DGMS) deals with safety, while CCO focuses on statistics, quality, and monitoring captive blocks.

27. In India, which one of the following compiles information on industria

In India, which one of the following compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and lay-offs in factories employing workers?

[amp_mcq option1=”Central Statistics Office” option2=”Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade” option3=”Labour Bureau” option4=”National Technical Manpower Information System” correct=”option3″]

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The Labour Bureau in India is responsible for compiling information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments, and lay-offs.
The Labour Bureau, an attached office of the Ministry of Labour and Employment, Government of India, is tasked with the collection, compilation, analysis, and dissemination of labour statistics, including those related to industrial relations such as disputes, strikes, lockouts, closures, retrenchments, and lay-offs.
– Central Statistics Office (now part of the National Statistical Office – NSO) primarily deals with macro-economic statistics like GDP, inflation, and industrial production surveys but not specifically detailed industrial dispute data.
– Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) is under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry and focuses on industrial policy, investment promotion, etc.
– National Technical Manpower Information System (NTMIS) is related to manpower planning and education, not industrial disputes.

28. Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known

Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi?

[amp_mcq option1=”Ant” option2=”Cockroach” option3=”Crab” option4=”Spider” correct=”option1″]

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Certain species of ants are well known for cultivating fungi for food.
Ants belonging to the tribe Attini (found in the Americas), particularly leafcutter ants, are famous examples of organisms that cultivate fungi. They create fungal gardens using collected plant material (like leaves) as substrate, on which specific fungi grow. The ants then feed on the fungal mycelium. This represents a sophisticated form of symbiosis.
While other insects like termites and some beetles also cultivate fungi, among the options provided, ants are the most widely known examples of fungus cultivators. Cockroaches, crabs, and spiders do not typically cultivate fungi in this manner.

29. With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the

With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements:

1. Wild animals are the sole property of the government.
2. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside.
3. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2″ option2=”2 only” option3=”1 and 3″ option4=”3 only” correct=”option1″]

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Statements 1 and 2 are correct regarding Indian laws about wildlife protection.
– Statement 1 is correct. As per the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 (as amended), scheduled wild animals become the property of the government upon being killed or captured, or if found dead. This establishes government ownership over protected wildlife.
– Statement 2 is correct. When a species is listed in the Schedules of the WPA, 1972, it receives the protection afforded by the Act regardless of whether it is found within a designated protected area (like a National Park or Wildlife Sanctuary) or outside. The protection status applies to the animal itself.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Apprehension alone is not sufficient ground for the capture or killing of a protected wild animal. Section 11 of the WPA, 1972, allows for the killing or wounding of a wild animal in self-defence or if it becomes dangerous to human life or property (including standing crops). However, this typically requires assessment and permission from the Chief Wildlife Warden or authorized officer, establishing that the animal is indeed a danger, not merely an apprehension. Killing purely based on apprehension without official assessment is generally not permissible.

30. Consider the following pairs: Region often mentioned in the news – Co

Consider the following pairs:

Region often mentioned in the news – Country
1. Anatolia – Turkey
2. Amhara – Ethiopia
3. Cabo Delgado – Spain
4. Catalonia – Italy

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

[amp_mcq option1=”Only one pair” option2=”Only two pairs” option3=”Only three pairs” option4=”All four pairs” correct=”option2″]

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Two out of the four pairs are correctly matched: Anatolia is in Turkey, and Amhara is a region in Ethiopia.
– Anatolia is a large peninsula in Western Asia, forming the major part of Turkey.
– Amhara is one of the ten regional states of Ethiopia, and it has been prominent in news due to internal conflict and instability.
– Cabo Delgado is a province located in the northern part of Mozambique, which has been affected by an ongoing insurgency. It is not in Spain.
– Catalonia is an autonomous community in Spain, known for its independence movement. It is not in Italy.
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