UPSC IAS Archives

21. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels: 1.

Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels:

1. They build nests by making burrows in the ground.
2. They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground.
3. They are omnivorous.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

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UPSC IAS – 2023

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Only two of the above statements are correct.

1. **They build nests by making burrows in the ground:** This is generally incorrect for the common Indian squirrels (like the Indian Palm Squirrel). Tree squirrels, which are prevalent in India, typically build nests called ‘dreys’ high up in trees using twigs, leaves, and other plant materials. While some squirrel species (ground squirrels) do burrow, this is not characteristic of the squirrels commonly referred to in India in this context.
2. **They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground:** This is correct. Burying or ‘caching’ nuts and seeds is a common behaviour among many squirrel species, including Indian squirrels, to store food for later consumption, particularly during scarcity.
3. **They are omnivorous:** This is correct. While their diet primarily consists of plant material like nuts, seeds, fruits, and buds, Indian squirrels are known to also eat insects, larvae, bird eggs, and occasionally small vertebrates, making them omnivorous.

The most common squirrel species in India are tree squirrels like the Indian Palm Squirrel (*Funambulus palmarum*) and the Indian Giant Squirrel (*Ratufa indica*). Their habits align with statements 2 and 3, but not statement 1.

22. Consider the following statements: 1. Some mushrooms have medicinal

Consider the following statements:

1. Some mushrooms have medicinal properties.
2. Some mushrooms have psycho-active properties.
3. Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties.
4. Some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one

Only two

Only three

All four

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UPSC IAS – 2023

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All four statements are correct.

1. **Some mushrooms have medicinal properties:** Many mushroom species have been traditionally used for medicinal purposes and are being researched for compounds with potential benefits, including anti-cancer, immune-modulating, and antibiotic effects (e.g., Reishi, Shiitake, Turkey Tail).
2. **Some mushrooms have psycho-active properties:** Certain mushrooms contain psychoactive compounds like psilocybin and psilocin (e.g., Psilocybe species), which affect the mind and perception.
3. **Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties:** Some fungi, including certain mushroom species, produce compounds that are toxic or deterrent to insects. *Amanita muscaria*, for example, contains ibotenic acid, which has insecticidal properties.
4. **Some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties:** Several species of fungi, including certain mushrooms (e.g., some *Mycena* species, *Panellus stipticus*), are bioluminescent, meaning they produce light through a chemical reaction.

Fungi are a diverse kingdom, and mushrooms, being the fruiting bodies of many fungi, exhibit a wide range of biological and chemical properties, including those mentioned in the statements.

23. Which of the following organisms perform waggle dance for others of th

Which of the following organisms perform waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food?

Butterflies

Dragonflies

Honeybees

Wasps

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UPSC IAS – 2023

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Honeybees perform the waggle dance to indicate the direction and distance to a source of food.

The waggle dance is a specific figure-eight dance performed by honeybees (Apis mellifera) to communicate the location of food sources, water sources, or new nest sites to other members of the colony. The direction and duration of the “waggle” run within the dance correlate directly to the direction and distance of the resource from the hive relative to the sun’s position.

This remarkable form of communication was extensively studied by Nobel laureate Karl von Frisch. While other insects like ants also use chemical trails and other signals, the waggle dance is uniquely associated with honeybees for complex spatial information transfer.

24. Consider the following fauna: 1. Lion-tailed Macaque 2. Malabar C

Consider the following fauna:

1. Lion-tailed Macaque
2. Malabar Civet
3. Sambar Deer

How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

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Only two of the listed fauna are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset.

1. **Lion-tailed Macaque:** These are diurnal animals, meaning they are primarily active during the day.
2. **Malabar Civet:** This species is known to be strictly nocturnal, active mainly during the night.
3. **Sambar Deer:** While they can be active during the day, Sambar deer are often crepuscular (most active during dawn and dusk) and their activity often extends into the night, especially in areas with human disturbance. Thus, they are frequently most active after sunset.

Therefore, the Malabar Civet is nocturnal, and the Sambar Deer is often crepuscular/nocturnal, fitting the description “generally nocturnal or most active after sunset”. The Lion-tailed Macaque is diurnal. This makes a total of two species out of the three listed.

25. ‘Invasive Species Specialist Group’ (that develops Global Invasive Spe

‘Invasive Species Specialist Group’ (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations?

The International Union for Conservation of Nature

The United Nations Environment Programme

The United Nations World Commission for Environment and Development

The World Wide Fund for Nature

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UPSC IAS – 2023

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The Invasive Species Specialist Group (ISSG) belongs to The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).

The Invasive Species Specialist Group (ISSG) is a global network of experts that works on invasive alien species. It is one of the specialist groups within the Species Survival Commission (SSC) of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). The Global Invasive Species Database is a project managed by the ISSG.

The IUCN is a membership Union composed of both government and civil society organizations. It provides knowledge and tools to enable human progress, economic development and nature conservation to take place together. The SSC is one of six commissions of the IUCN, focused on conservation planning and policy recommendations for species.

26. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Marsupials are not nat

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Marsupials are not naturally found in India.
Statement-II: Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

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Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.

Statement-I: Marsupials are a group of mammals native primarily to Australia, New Guinea, and the Americas. They are characterized by the pouch (marsupium) in which most females carry and nurse their young. Marsupials are not naturally found in the Indian subcontinent. This statement is correct.
Statement-II: This statement is incorrect. Marsupials inhabit a wide variety of environments, including forests, woodlands, grasslands, deserts, and even urban areas, not just montane grasslands. Furthermore, they coexist with various predators in their native habitats. Their survival is not contingent upon the absence of predators.

Well-known marsupials include kangaroos, koalas, wallabies (Australia/New Guinea), and opossums (Americas). Their ecological adaptations are diverse, allowing them to thrive in different climates and landscapes.

27. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: India, despite having

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most its electricity production.
Statement-II: Uranium, enriched to the extent at of least 60%, is required for the production of electricity.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

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Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.

Statement-I: India heavily relies on coal for its electricity generation, which accounts for over half of the total installed capacity and actual generation. While India has some uranium deposits and a growing nuclear power program, its contribution to the total electricity mix is relatively small compared to coal. Hence, India depends predominantly on coal despite having some uranium reserves. This statement is correct.
Statement-II: Commercial nuclear power reactors, such as Pressurized Water Reactors (PWRs) and Boiling Water Reactors (BWRs), typically use Low Enriched Uranium (LEU), which is enriched to about 3% to 5% of the fissile isotope U-235. Enrichment to the extent of at least 60% (which falls under Highly Enriched Uranium – HEU) is not required for the production of electricity in most common power reactors. HEU is usually used in research reactors or for weapons purposes. This statement is incorrect.

India’s nuclear power program aims to increase capacity using both indigenous uranium and imported fuel, but coal remains the backbone of its energy production. The level of uranium enrichment is critical for its use; lower enrichment for power, higher for specific research reactors or weapons.

28. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Supreme Court of I

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgements that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration.
Statement-II: Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term ‘efficiency of administration’.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

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Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.

Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has indeed held in several judgments that the State’s power to make reservations under Article 16(4) must be exercised while keeping in view the maintenance of efficiency of administration, as stipulated in Article 335. This balancing act is a key aspect of reservation jurisprudence in India.
Statement-II: Article 335 of the Constitution states that the claims of SCs and STs shall be considered “consistently with the maintenance of efficiency of administration”. However, it does not define the term ‘efficiency of administration’. The scope and meaning of this term in the context of reservations have been subject to judicial interpretation rather than being defined in the Article itself.

Important Supreme Court cases like M. Nagaraj (2006) and Jarnail Singh (2018, 2022) have elaborated on the principles governing reservations, reaffirming that quantifiable data on backwardness, inadequacy of representation, and the impact on administrative efficiency (derived from Article 335) are essential considerations.

29. With reference to Scheduled Areas in India, consider the following sta

With reference to Scheduled Areas in India, consider the following statements:

1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.
2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block.
3. The Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

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UPSC IAS – 2023

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Scheduled Areas are administered according to the provisions of the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution.
Statement 1 is correct. Under paragraph 6(1) of the Fifth Schedule, the President may, by order, declare any area to be a Scheduled Area. The modification, increase, decrease, or rescission of Scheduled Areas can only be done by Parliament through law (paragraph 6(2)), but the initial notification is by Presidential Order.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The Fifth Schedule does not specify that the largest administrative unit must be a District and the lowest a cluster of villages. The definition and extent of a Scheduled Area are as specified in the President’s order. A Scheduled Area can comprise an entire district, parts of a district, or even smaller areas like a cluster of villages or a block, depending on the concentration of the tribal population and other relevant factors. There is no uniform administrative unit requirement fixed by the Schedule itself.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Paragraph 3 of the Fifth Schedule requires the *Governor* of each state having Scheduled Areas to submit annually, or whenever so required by the President, a report to the *President* regarding the administration of the Scheduled Areas in that State. The report is submitted to the President, not the Union Home Ministry, and by the Governor, not the Chief Minister.

– Scheduled Areas are notified by the President.
– The administrative units forming Scheduled Areas are not rigidly fixed as District for largest and cluster of villages for lowest; it varies as per Presidential order.
– The Governor submits an annual report on the administration of Scheduled Areas to the President.

The Fifth Schedule contains provisions for the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in any state other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram, which are covered by the Sixth Schedule. Tribal Advisory Councils are also established in states having Scheduled Areas or Scheduled Tribes.

30. Consider the following statements: Once the Central Government notifie

Consider the following statements: Once the Central Government notifies an area as a ‘Community Reserve’
1. the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest
2. hunting is not allowed in such area
3. people of such area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

3 only

1, 2 and 3

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Community Reserves are areas declared under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 (as amended in 2002).
Statement 1 is incorrect. According to Section 36C(1)(a) of the Act, where the State Government declares any community land or private land as a Community Reserve, the area shall be constituted and managed by a Community Reserve Management Committee. While the Chief Wildlife Warden plays a crucial administrative and oversight role, the ‘governing authority’ of the reserve is the Management Committee.

Statement 2 is correct. Hunting is strictly prohibited in a Community Reserve (Section 36C(3)(a)). This is a fundamental protective measure under the Act.

Statement 3 is correct. The Act allows for traditional practices, including the collection of non-timber forest produce, that are consistent with the conservation of wildlife and its habitat, provided they do not adversely affect the wildlife therein. The notification process and management involve consulting the community and incorporating their customary rights and practices where compatible with conservation. (See Section 36C(3)(b) and the intent behind involving local communities).

– Community Reserves are declared under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
– They are managed by a Community Reserve Management Committee.
– Hunting is prohibited.
– Traditional uses like NTFP collection are allowed if compatible with conservation.

Community Reserves are areas that are typically outside national parks and wildlife sanctuaries, but adjacent to them or connecting them, and are important for conservation. They aim to involve local communities in conservation efforts and are jointly managed.