UPSC IAS Archives

21. Consider the following statements regarding the Directive Principles o

Consider the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy :

The Principles spell out the socio-economic democracy in the country.
The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable by any court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2015

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Both statements 1 and 2 are correct regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).

Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV of the Indian Constitution) are constitutional instructions to the State for socio-economic development, aiming to establish a welfare state and realise socio-economic democracy. Article 37 explicitly states that these principles are fundamental in the governance of the country but are not enforceable by any court.

The DPSP are inspired by the Directive Principles of State Policy in the Irish Constitution. While non-justiciable, they serve as guidelines for the formulation of laws and policies by the state, acting as a moral obligation on the government. Their non-enforceability distinguishes them from the Fundamental Rights (Part III), which are justiciable.

22. Which one of the following pairs of States of India indicates the east

Which one of the following pairs of States of India indicates the easternmost and westernmost State?

Assam and Rajasthan

Arunachal Pradesh and Rajasthan

Assam and Gujarat

Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2015

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The easternmost state of India (mainland) is Arunachal Pradesh, and the westernmost state (mainland) is Gujarat.

Arunachal Pradesh is located in the northeastern part of India and is the state that receives the first sunrise in the country due to its longitudinal extent. Its easternmost point is near Kibithu.
Gujarat is located on the western coast of India. Its westernmost point on the mainland is in the Kutch region, near Ghuar Mota.
Comparing the options, Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat represent the easternmost and westernmost states, respectively.
Assam is to the west of Arunachal Pradesh. Rajasthan is to the northeast of Gujarat but not the westernmost state.

The difference in longitude between Arunachal Pradesh (approx. 97.25° E) and Gujarat (approx. 68.1° E) leads to a time difference of about two hours between the eastern and western parts of India.

23. In the South Atlantic and South-Eastern Pacific regions in tropical la

In the South Atlantic and South-Eastern Pacific regions in tropical latitudes, cyclone does not originate. What is the reason?

Sea surface temperatures are low

Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone seldom occurs

Coriolis force is too weak

Absence of land in those regions

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2015

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Tropical cyclones do not originate in the South Atlantic and South-Eastern Pacific tropical latitudes primarily because the sea surface temperatures are generally too low in these regions.

Tropical cyclones require warm ocean waters (typically 26.5°C or higher) extending to a significant depth to provide the necessary heat and moisture. In the South-Eastern Pacific along the coast of South America, the cold Humboldt Current keeps the sea surface temperatures low. In the South Atlantic, cold currents (like the Benguela Current) and other factors like high vertical wind shear and unfavorable positioning of the ITCZ generally suppress tropical cyclone formation. While the ITCZ (option B) is also a factor, low sea surface temperature (option A) due to persistent cold currents is a fundamental constraint that prevents the formation or sustenance of tropical cyclones in significant parts of these tropical regions. Coriolis force (option C) is weak near the equator but sufficient in higher tropical latitudes; its weakness only explains the absence near the equator itself, not the entire regions. Absence of land (option D) over the ocean does not prevent cyclone formation.

Occasionally, tropical or subtropical storms can form in the South Atlantic under unusual conditions, but full-blown hurricanes or typhoons are extremely rare. The South-Eastern Pacific is also generally inactive due to the cold water. Most tropical cyclones form in the North Atlantic, Eastern/Central/Western North Pacific, North Indian Ocean, South Indian Ocean, and the Australian/Southwest Pacific basins.

24. The ‘Fortaleza Declaration’, recently in the news, is related to the a

The ‘Fortaleza Declaration’, recently in the news, is related to the affairs of

ASEAN

BRICS

OECD

WTO

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2015

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The ‘Fortaleza Declaration’ is related to the affairs of the BRICS group of countries.

The Fortaleza Declaration was the outcome document of the 6th BRICS summit held in Fortaleza, Brazil, in July 2014. A key achievement of this summit, as articulated in the Declaration, was the decision to establish the New Development Bank (NDB) and the Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA).

BRICS is an acronym for the association of five major emerging national economies: Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa. The Fortaleza summit marked a significant step in strengthening institutional cooperation among BRICS members.

25. With reference to the Fourteenth Finance Commission, which of the foll

With reference to the Fourteenth Finance Commission, which of the following statements is/are correct?

It has increased the share of States in the central divisible pool from 32 percent to 42 percent.
It has made recommendations concerning sector-specific grants.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2015

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Both statements regarding the recommendations of the Fourteenth Finance Commission are correct.

Statement 1 is correct. The Fourteenth Finance Commission (Chairman: Y. V. Reddy) recommended a significant increase in the share of states in the divisible pool of central taxes from 32% (recommended by the 13th FC) to 42% for the period 2015-2020. This was a major shift towards greater fiscal decentralization.
Statement 2 is correct. While the 14th FC focused on increasing the untied share of states in central taxes, it also made recommendations concerning various grants, including grants to local bodies (Panchayats and Municipalities) and sector-specific grants, particularly for health and education, although the emphasis on tied sector-specific grants was reduced compared to earlier commissions.

The Finance Commission is a constitutional body under Article 280 of the Constitution, established every five years to recommend the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States and among the States. The 14th Finance Commission’s recommendations were implemented for the period 2015-16 to 2019-20. The Fifteenth Finance Commission (Chairman: N. K. Singh) made recommendations for the period 2020-21 to 2025-26, recommending the states’ share at 41% (a reduction by 1% due to the creation of the Union Territories of Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh).

26. Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana’ has been launched for

Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana’ has been launched for

providing housing loan to poor people at cheaper interest rates

promoting women's Self-Help Groups in backward areas

promoting financial inclusion in the country

providing financial help to the marginalized communities

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2015

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Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) is a national mission launched to promote financial inclusion across India.

PMJDY aims to provide access to financial services such as banking/savings and deposit accounts, remittance, credit, insurance, and pension in an affordable manner. The primary objective is to ensure that every household in India has access to banking facilities, thereby bringing the unbanked population into the formal financial system.
Option A is incorrect; housing loans are covered under different schemes (e.g., Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana).
Option B is incorrect; promoting SHGs is usually part of rural development schemes like the National Rural Livelihood Mission.
Option D is partially correct as financial inclusion benefits marginalized communities, but the scheme’s scope and primary objective is broader – encompassing all households and promoting access to a range of financial services, not just direct financial help. Financial inclusion (C) is the overarching goal.

Key features of PMJDY include opening of basic savings bank deposit accounts with focus on zero balance, RuPay Debit Card with inbuilt accident insurance cover, and an overdraft facility after satisfactory operation of the account for a certain period. It plays a crucial role in delivering government scheme benefits directly into beneficiary accounts.

27. With reference to Union Budget, which of the following is/are covered

With reference to Union Budget, which of the following is/are covered under Non-Plan Expenditure?

Defence expenditure
Interest payments
Salaries and pensions
Subsidies

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3 and 4

None

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2014

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All four listed items fall under the traditional definition of Non-Plan Expenditure in the Union Budget.

Non-Plan Expenditure refers to the government’s essential or committed expenditures that are not directly linked to specific central plans or schemes. These include expenditures necessary for the functioning of the government and basic services.
Defence expenditure is a major component of non-plan expenditure.
Interest payments on the government’s borrowing constitute a significant portion of non-plan expenditure and are mandatory obligations.
Salaries and pensions for government employees are committed expenditures and fall under non-plan expenditure.
Subsidies (e.g., for food, fertilizers, petroleum) are also typically treated as non-plan expenditure aimed at providing support to specific sectors or populations.

The distinction between Plan and Non-Plan Expenditure was abolished starting from the Union Budget 2017-18. Expenditures are now classified based on Capital and Revenue accounts and outcomes. However, questions based on the older classification may still appear in exams referencing past budgets. Under the new system, these expenditures would still be classified, primarily under the Revenue account, but the “non-plan” label is no longer used for budget presentation.

28. Which of the following organizations brings out the publication known

Which of the following organizations brings out the publication known as ‘World Economic Outlook’?

The International Monetary Fund

The United Nations Development Programme

The World Economic Forum

The World Bank

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2014

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The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is the organization that publishes the ‘World Economic Outlook’ report.

The World Economic Outlook (WEO) is a comprehensive report published by the IMF typically twice a year, in spring and fall. It presents the IMF staff’s analysis and projections of global economic developments and trends. It provides analysis of global output, inflation, trade, and other macroeconomic indicators.

The World Bank publishes reports like the ‘Global Economic Prospects’. The World Economic Forum is known for reports such as ‘The Global Competitiveness Report’. The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) publishes the ‘Human Development Report’.

29. There is some concern regarding the nanoparticles of some chemical ele

There is some concern regarding the nanoparticles of some chemical elements that are used by the industry in the manufacture of various products. Why?

They can accumulate in the environment, and contaminate water and soil.
They can enter the food chains.
They can trigger the production of free radicals.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1 and 2 only

3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2014

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All three statements express valid concerns regarding the use and potential environmental and health impacts of nanoparticles. Their small size allows them to easily interact with biological systems and the environment in ways that larger particles do not.

Statement 1 is correct. Due to their extremely small size and high surface area, nanoparticles are highly mobile and can persist and accumulate in various environmental compartments like water and soil, leading to contamination.
Statement 2 is correct. Nanoparticles can be taken up by organisms (plants, animals, microorganisms) from contaminated environments and can then transfer through trophic levels, entering the food chain.
Statement 3 is correct. Many types of nanoparticles, particularly metal and metal oxide nanoparticles, have been shown to trigger the production of reactive oxygen species (ROS) or free radicals in biological systems. This can cause oxidative stress, leading to cell damage, inflammation, and potentially other adverse health effects.

Nanoparticles are increasingly used in various industrial products (cosmetics, paints, electronics, textiles, medicine, etc.). While nanotechnology offers significant benefits, the potential risks associated with the environmental fate, persistence, and toxicity of engineered nanoparticles are subjects of ongoing research and regulatory concern.

30. Consider the following pairs : Vitamin : Deficiency disease 1. Vitamin

Consider the following pairs :
Vitamin : Deficiency disease
1. Vitamin C : Scurvy
2. Vitamin D : Rickets
3. Vitamin E : Night blindness
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

1 and 2 only

3 only

1, 2 and 3

None

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2014

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Pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched, describing the deficiency diseases associated with Vitamin C and Vitamin D, respectively. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched.

Pair 1: Vitamin C deficiency causes Scurvy, a disease characterized by weakness, anemia, bruising, bleeding gums, and loose teeth. This pair is correctly matched.
Pair 2: Vitamin D deficiency causes Rickets in children, a condition characterized by soft and weak bones, leading to skeletal deformities. In adults, it causes Osteomalacia. This pair is correctly matched.
Pair 3: Vitamin E deficiency is rare and can lead to nerve and muscle damage, loss of body movement control, muscle weakness, and vision problems. Night blindness (Nyctalopia) is caused by Vitamin A deficiency, which affects the ability to see in low light conditions. This pair is incorrectly matched.

Vitamins are essential micronutrients required by the body for various metabolic processes. Deficiency of different vitamins leads to specific deficiency diseases. Vitamin A is crucial for vision, immune function, and cell growth. Vitamin E is an antioxidant that protects cells from damage.