UPSC IAS Archives

11. With reference to Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperatio

With reference to Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation (IOR-ARC), consider the following statements:

It was established very recently in response to incidents of piracy and accidents of oil spills.
It is an alliance meant for maritime security only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2015

Statement 1 is incorrect as the Indian Ocean Rim Association (IOR-ARC) was established in 1997, not recently, and while maritime safety and security are part of its agenda, they were not the primary or sole reasons for its establishment; it was founded primarily to promote economic cooperation. Statement 2 is incorrect because IOR-ARC is not solely focused on maritime security; its objectives encompass a wide range of areas including economic cooperation, trade, investment, tourism, technology, disaster risk management, and cultural exchange, in addition to maritime safety and security. Therefore, neither statement is correct.

The Indian Ocean Rim Association (IOR-ARC), now known as the Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA), is an international organisation established in 1997 to promote regional cooperation and development within the Indian Ocean region. Its focus is multi-faceted, covering economic, social, and environmental aspects.

IORA’s membership includes 23 Member States and 10 Dialogue Partners. The organization provides a platform for countries of the Indian Ocean region to discuss and cooperate on issues of mutual interest. While maritime security is an important area of focus, it is one of several priority areas alongside trade facilitation, fisheries management, disaster risk management, and academic and S&T cooperation.

12. Consider the following statements: 1. The winds which blow between 3

Consider the following statements:

1. The winds which blow between 30° N and 60° S latitudes throughout the year are known as westerlies.
2. The moist air masses that cause winter rains in North-Western region of India are part of westerlies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2015

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The correct option is B.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Westerlies are prevailing winds that blow from west to east in the mid-latitudes, approximately between 30° and 60° latitude in *each* hemisphere (30°N to 60°N and 30°S to 60°S). The statement describes a range from 30°N to 60°S as a single band, which is geographically incorrect for the definition of westerlies.
Statement 2 is correct. The winter rains in the North-Western region of India (such as Punjab, Haryana, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, and parts of Rajasthan and Delhi) are caused by Western Disturbances. These are extratropical storms originating in the Mediterranean region, moving eastward across Iran, Afghanistan, and Pakistan, driven by the mid-latitude westerlies. These disturbances bring moisture that results in precipitation during the winter months. Thus, the moist air masses causing these rains are part of the westerlies system.

Westerlies are part of the global atmospheric circulation, specifically located between the subtropical high-pressure belt (around 30°) and the subpolar low-pressure belt (around 60°). They are stronger in the Southern Hemisphere due to the absence of large landmasses obstructing the flow. Western Disturbances are significant weather phenomena in North-Western India, crucial for Rabi crops, but they can also cause challenging weather conditions like fog and cold waves.

13. ‘Basel III Accord’ or simply ‘Basel III’, often seen in the news, seek

‘Basel III Accord’ or simply ‘Basel III’, often seen in the news, seeks to

[amp_mcq option1=”develop national strategies for the conservation and sustainable use of biological diversity” option2=”improve banking sector’s ability to deal with financial and economic stress and improve risk management” option3=”reduce the greenhouse gas emissions but places a heavier burden on developed countries” option4=”transfer technology from developed countries to poor countries to enable them to replace the use of chlorofluorocarbons in refrigeration with harmless chemicals” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2015

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The correct option is B.

The Basel III Accord is a set of international banking regulations developed by the Bank for International Settlements (BIS) through the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision (BCBS). It was developed in response to the global financial crisis of 2007-08. Basel III aims to improve the regulation, supervision, and risk management within the banking sector. Key objectives include strengthening bank capital requirements, enhancing liquidity standards, and controlling leverage, thereby improving the banking sector’s ability to absorb shocks arising from financial and economic stress.

Basel I and Basel II were earlier versions of these accords focusing primarily on capital requirements and risk management. Basel III builds upon these, introducing more stringent requirements and new measures related to liquidity and leverage to create a more resilient banking system.

14. In the Mekong-Ganga Cooperation, an initiative of six countries, which

In the Mekong-Ganga Cooperation, an initiative of six countries, which of the following is/are not a participant/participants?
1. Bangladesh
2. Cambodia
3. China
4. Myanmar
5. Thailand
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2, 3 and 4″ option3=”1 and 3″ option4=”1, 2 and 5″ correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2015

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The correct option is C.

The Mekong-Ganga Cooperation (MGC) is an initiative comprising six member countries: India and five ASEAN countries, namely Cambodia, Laos, Myanmar, Thailand, and Vietnam. The initiative focuses on cooperation in areas like tourism, culture, education, transport, and communication. Looking at the list provided:
1. Bangladesh: Not a member of MGC.
2. Cambodia: Is a member of MGC.
3. China: Not a member of MGC.
4. Myanmar: Is a member of MGC.
5. Thailand: Is a member of MGC.
The question asks which is/are *not* a participant/participants. Therefore, Bangladesh (1) and China (3) are not participants.

The MGC was launched in 2000 at Vientiane, Laos. It is named after the two major rivers in the region, the Mekong and the Ganga (Ganges), symbolising the historical and cultural linkages between India and the countries of Southeast Asia.

15. The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee is constituted under the

The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee is constituted under the

[amp_mcq option1=”Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006″ option2=”Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999″ option3=”Environment (Protection) Act, 1986″ option4=”Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972″ correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2015

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The correct option is C.

The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is the apex body constituted under the Rules for Manufacture, Use, Import, Export and Storage of Hazardous Microorganisms/Genetically Engineered Organisms or Cells, 1989. These rules were notified under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. The GEAC is responsible for appraisal of activities involving large scale use of genetically engineered organisms and products in research and development, and for commercial release of genetically engineered organisms and products into the environment.

The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 is an umbrella legislation for the protection and improvement of the environment. It provides the framework for environmental regulation in India, including dealing with hazardous substances and genetically modified organisms. The GEAC plays a crucial role in regulating genetically modified crops and other related activities in the country.

16. Consider the following statements: 1. The Accelerated Irrigation Ben

Consider the following statements:

1. The Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Programme was launched during 1996-97 to provide loan assistance to poor farmers.
2. The Command Area Development Programme was launched in 1974-75 for the development of water-use efficiency.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2015

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The correct option is B.

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Programme (AIBP) was indeed launched in 1996-97, but its main objective was to provide central assistance to states to complete ongoing major and medium irrigation projects and surface minor irrigation schemes that were beyond the resource capability of the states or were in advanced stages of completion. It was not primarily focused on providing loan assistance directly to poor farmers.
Statement 2 is correct. The Command Area Development Programme (CADP), later renamed as Command Area Development and Water Management Programme (CAD&WM Programme), was launched in 1974-75 with the objective of bridging the gap between irrigation potential created and utilized. It aimed at integrated development of command areas to improve water-use efficiency and productivity through various activities like construction of field channels, land levelling, warabandi (rotational water supply), and extension services.

AIBP was integrated into the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY) in 2015-16. The CAD&WM Programme is also a component of PMKSY. These programmes reflect India’s focus on improving irrigation infrastructure and water management for agricultural sustainability.

17. Who/Which of the following is the custodian of the Constitution of

Who/Which of the following is the custodian of the Constitution of India?

[amp_mcq option1=”The President of India” option2=”The Prime Minister of India” option3=”The Lok Sabha Secretariat” option4=”The Supreme Court of India” correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2015

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The correct option is D.

The Supreme Court of India is considered the guardian and interpreter of the Constitution. It has the power of judicial review, which allows it to examine the constitutionality of laws passed by the Parliament and state legislatures and executive actions. If any law or action is found to be inconsistent with or violates the Constitution, the Supreme Court can declare it ultra vires (beyond the powers) and void. This power makes the Supreme Court the final arbiter and custodian of the Constitution.

While the President takes an oath to preserve, protect, and defend the Constitution, and Parliament is the legislative body that derives its powers from the Constitution, the ultimate authority to interpret the Constitution and ensure that all branches of government act within its framework rests with the judiciary, with the Supreme Court being the highest court.

18. With reference to the Union Government, consider the following stateme

With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:

1. The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of Union Budget that is presented to Parliament.
2. No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization from the Parliament of India.
3. All the disbursements made from Public Account also need the authorization from the Parliament of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”2 and 3 only” option3=”2 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2015

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The correct option is C.

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Union Budget is prepared by the Budget Division under the Department of Economic Affairs in the Ministry of Finance, not the Department of Revenue. The Department of Revenue is mainly responsible for taxation policy and administration.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 266(1) of the Constitution establishes the Consolidated Fund of India. No money can be withdrawn from this fund except under appropriation made by law passed by Parliament. This ensures parliamentary control over government expenditure.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Article 266(2) deals with the Public Account of India, which holds funds like provident funds, small savings, etc., where the government acts as a banker. Disbursements from the Public Account do not require legislative authorization; they are made based on executive decisions and are repayable. Only transactions from the Consolidated Fund require parliamentary approval.

The Consolidated Fund of India is the main account where all revenues of the government are credited and major expenditures are debited. The Public Account is for funds where the government is merely a custodian. There is also a Contingency Fund (Article 267) for unforeseen expenditure, which is at the disposal of the President but needs subsequent parliamentary approval for replenishment.

19. The provisions in Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitutio

The provisions in Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to

[amp_mcq option1=”protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes” option2=”determine the boundaries between States” option3=”determine the powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats” option4=”protect the interests of all the border States” correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2015

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The correct option is A.

The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in any state except the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. The Sixth Schedule deals with the administration of tribal areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram, providing for autonomous district councils and regional councils with certain legislative and executive powers. Both schedules are specifically designed to protect the interests, culture, and autonomy of Scheduled Tribes and govern the administration of areas predominantly inhabited by them.

The provisions under the Fifth and Sixth Schedules aim to provide a certain degree of autonomy and self-governance to tribal communities, recognising their distinct social, cultural, and economic characteristics. They allow for tailored administrative frameworks that consider the unique needs and aspirations of tribal populations, helping to protect them from exploitation and preserve their traditional way of life.

20. In India, the steel production industry requires the import of

In India, the steel production industry requires the import of

[amp_mcq option1=”saltpetre” option2=”rock phosphate” option3=”coking coal” option4=”All of the above” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2015

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The correct option is C.

Steel production primarily uses iron ore and coking coal in the blast furnace process. While India has abundant reserves of iron ore, it lacks sufficient reserves of high-quality coking coal required for metallurgical purposes. Consequently, India heavily imports coking coal to meet the demands of its steel industry. Saltpetre (potassium nitrate) is used in fertilisers and explosives, not directly in steel making. Rock phosphate is a source of phosphorus, mainly used for producing phosphate fertilisers.

India is one of the world’s largest producers of crude steel, but its dependence on imported coking coal remains a significant challenge for the domestic industry. Major sources of coking coal imports for India include Australia, the USA, Canada, and Indonesia. Efforts are being made to enhance domestic production and explore alternative technologies to reduce reliance on imported coking coal.