UPSC Geoscientist

1. Which one of the following programmes is not a part of poverty allevia

Which one of the following programmes is not a part of poverty alleviation programmes in India?

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Integrated Rural Development Programme
Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana
Ayushman Bharat Yojana
National Family Benefit Scheme
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Ayushman Bharat Yojana is not primarily a poverty alleviation programme in the sense of directly providing income, employment, or asset creation for the poor. It is a national health insurance scheme.
Programmes like the Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP), Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana (which includes National Rural Livelihoods Mission and National Urban Livelihoods Mission), and National Family Benefit Scheme (part of National Social Assistance Programme) are specifically designed to address poverty through various means like self-employment, wage employment, and social security benefits for the poor.
Ayushman Bharat aims to provide universal health coverage, focusing on access to healthcare services for economically weaker sections, which indirectly contributes to well-being but isn’t categorized as a direct poverty alleviation program like income or employment schemes.

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2. The S. R. Bommai and Others vs Union of India case relates to which on

The S. R. Bommai and Others vs Union of India case relates to which one of the following issues?

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Sexual harassment at workplace
Proclamation of Emergency in States
Issuing of Ordinances by the President of India
Power to amend the Constitution by the Parliament
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The S. R. Bommai and Others vs Union of India case is a landmark judgment by the Supreme Court of India that dealt with the issues related to the arbitrary imposition of President’s Rule in states under Article 356 of the Constitution.
The case laid down strict guidelines for the exercise of powers under Article 356, emphasizing that the power is not absolute and is subject to judicial review. The judgment stated that the majority of a government should be tested on the floor of the Assembly and not through the Governor’s opinion or President’s decision.
This judgment significantly curtailed the arbitrary use of Article 356 by the Union government, which had been a frequent occurrence in the past. It is considered a crucial decision for strengthening federalism in India.

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3. Who among the following was the Chairman of the National Commission fo

Who among the following was the Chairman of the National Commission for Review of the Working of the Constitution (NCRWC)?

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Justice Ranganath Misra
Justice J. S. Verma
Justice A. M. Ahmadi
Justice M. N. Venkatachaliah
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The Chairman of the National Commission for Review of the Working of the Constitution (NCRWC), which was set up in 2000, was Justice M. N. Venkatachaliah, a former Chief Justice of India.
– The NCRWC was constituted by the Government of India to suggest possible amendments to the Constitution based on the experience of its working over the past 50 years.
– The Commission submitted its report in 2002.
This commission was formed during the tenure of the NDA government led by Atal Bihari Vajpayee. Its recommendations covered various aspects of the Constitution’s working but were not fully implemented.

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4. Which among the following Supreme Court Judgements established the pri

Which among the following Supreme Court Judgements established the principle that the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution of India was unamendable?

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Golaknath vs State of Punjab
Kesavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala
Sankari Prasad vs Union of India
Sajjan Singh vs State of Rajasthan
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The landmark Supreme Court judgement that established the principle of the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution of India being unamendable was the Kesavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala case in 1973.
– In this judgement, the Supreme Court held that Parliament has the power to amend any part of the Constitution, including Fundamental Rights, but cannot alter or destroy the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution.
– This ruling overturned the previous judgement in Golaknath vs State of Punjab (1967), which had held that Fundamental Rights could not be amended.
The ‘basic structure’ doctrine does not have a single, fixed definition, but includes elements like the supremacy of the Constitution, the republican and democratic form of government, secular character, separation of powers, federal character, judicial review, etc., which the Supreme Court has identified over various cases.

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5. Which one of the following provisions of the Constitution of India was

Which one of the following provisions of the Constitution of India was not adopted from the British Constitution?

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First past the post system
Directive Principles of State Policy
Law-making procedure
Parliamentary form of government
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The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) in the Indian Constitution were not adopted from the British Constitution; they were largely inspired by the Constitution of Ireland (Article 45 of the Irish Constitution).
– First past the post system (winner takes all in constituencies) is a feature of the British electoral system adopted by India.
– The basic law-making procedure and the parliamentary form of government with a cabinet system collectively responsible to the legislature are also primarily derived from the British parliamentary system.
The Indian Constitution draws provisions from various sources worldwide. Besides the Irish Constitution for DPSPs, it borrowed ideas like Fundamental Rights from the USA, emergency provisions from the German Weimar Constitution, federal system with a strong centre from Canada, etc.

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6. Article 324 of the Constitution of India provides for the establishmen

Article 324 of the Constitution of India provides for the establishment of which one of the following institutions in India?

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The National Human Rights Commission
The Central Vigilance Commission
The Central Information Commission
The Election Commission of India
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Article 324 of the Constitution of India provides for the establishment of the Election Commission of India.
– Article 324(1) states that “The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of the electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections to Parliament and to the Legislature of every State and of elections to the offices of President and Vice-President held under this Constitution shall be vested in a Commission (referred to in this Constitution as the Election Commission).”
– This article establishes the Election Commission as an independent constitutional body.
The National Human Rights Commission, Central Vigilance Commission, and Central Information Commission are statutory bodies established by acts of Parliament, not constitutional bodies established directly by an article of the Constitution like the Election Commission.

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7. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The Fundamental

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  • 1. The Fundamental Duties are enlisted in Part IV-A of the Constitution of India.
  • 2. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India added the word ‘Secular’ to the Preamble of the Constitution of India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

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1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
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Statement 1 is correct, while statement 2 is incorrect. The Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution in Part IV-A. The words ‘Secular’ (along with ‘Socialist’ and ‘Integrity’) were added to the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment Act, not the 44th.
– Statement 1 is correct. Fundamental Duties were added by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee, and are listed in Part IV-A (Article 51A) of the Constitution.
– Statement 2 is incorrect. The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, added the words ‘Socialist’, ‘Secular’, and ‘Integrity’ to the Preamble. The 44th Amendment Act, 1978, primarily focused on changes related to emergency provisions and property rights.
The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, is often referred to as the ‘Mini-Constitution’ due to the large number of changes it made to the Constitution, including the addition of Fundamental Duties and changes to the Preamble.

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8. The President of India may resign from his post by writing under his h

The President of India may resign from his post by writing under his hand addressed to

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the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India
the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
the Vice President of India
the Prime Minister of India
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According to Article 56(1)(a) of the Constitution of India, the President may, by writing under his hand addressed to the Vice-President, resign from his office.
– The President addresses his resignation letter to the Vice-President.
– The Vice-President then communicates this resignation to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
Article 56 outlines the term of office of the President. It specifies that the President shall hold office for a term of five years, but may resign earlier by addressing a letter to the Vice-President.

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9. Which of the following statements is/are correct about ‘eSanjeevani’ ?

Which of the following statements is/are correct about ‘eSanjeevani’ ?

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  • 1. It is a platform of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare that provides physical presence of the doctors to the doorstep of the patients.
  • 2. One of its components is facilitating ‘doctor-to-doctor teleconsultation’.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
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Statement 2 is correct, while statement 1 is incorrect. eSanjeevani is a tele-medicine platform launched by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. It facilitates remote consultations, not physical presence of doctors at the doorstep.
– Statement 1 is incorrect because eSanjeevani is a virtual platform for telemedicine; it does not involve physical visits by doctors to patients’ homes.
– Statement 2 is correct. eSanjeevani has two variants: eSanjeevani OPD (patient-to-doctor teleconsultation) and eSanjeevani Ayushman Bharat-Health and Wellness Centre (AB-HWC) (doctor-to-doctor and health worker-to-doctor teleconsultation).
eSanjeevani aims to provide accessible and affordable healthcare services in both rural and urban areas through teleconsultations, reducing the need for patients to travel long distances to see a doctor. It has played a significant role, particularly during the COVID-19 pandemic.

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10. What happens to a bar magnet when it is heated?

What happens to a bar magnet when it is heated?

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Its polarity reverses
Its magnetism is increased
Its magnetism remains unchanged
Its magnetism is either reduced or lost
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When a bar magnet is heated, the increased thermal energy causes the atoms within the magnetic material to vibrate more vigorously. This increased vibration disrupts the alignment of magnetic domains, leading to a reduction or complete loss of magnetism.
– There is a specific temperature, called the Curie temperature, above which a ferromagnetic material loses its ferromagnetism and becomes paramagnetic.
– Heating below the Curie temperature can still weaken the magnet’s field, especially if the magnet is not uniformly heated or has structural imperfections.
Heating is one way to demagnetize a magnet. Other methods include hammering or exposing it to a strong alternating magnetic field (as in a degausser). The loss of magnetism is due to the disorganization of the microscopic magnetic moments within the material.

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