41. Which writ can be issued against a private trust/institution for failu

Which writ can be issued against a private trust/institution for failure to give effect to rules made by the Government?

[amp_mcq option1=”Mandamus” option2=”Prohibition” option3=”Quo warranto” option4=”Certiorari” correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2019-20
The writ of Mandamus is issued by a court to a public official, body, or lower court requiring them to perform a specific public or statutory duty which they are legally bound to perform. While typically issued against state authorities, Mandamus can also be issued against private bodies if they are performing a public function or failing to fulfill a statutory duty imposed by law, including rules made by the government that are binding on them.
Mandamus is a command to perform a duty.
The other writs are generally not applicable in this specific scenario: Prohibition prevents exceeding jurisdiction (for courts/tribunals), Certiorari quashes an order for lack of jurisdiction or error of law (for courts/tribunals), and Quo Warranto questions the authority to hold a public office.

42. Right to freedom of conscience and free profession is guaranteed to a

Right to freedom of conscience and free profession is guaranteed to a Hindu that includes which of the following?
1. Buddhist
2. Jaina
3. Sikh
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”2 and 3 only” option3=”1 and 3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2019-20
The reference to a Hindu in Article 25 includes Buddhist, Jaina, and Sikh religions.
Article 25 of the Constitution guarantees the freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice, and propagate religion.
Explanation II to Article 25 states: “In sub-clause (b) of clause (2), the reference to Hindus shall be construed as including a reference to persons professing the Sikh, Jaina or Buddhist religion, and the reference to Hindu religious institutions shall be construed accordingly.”
Clause 25(2)(b) allows the State to make laws for social welfare and reform or for throwing open Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all classes and sections of Hindus.
While this explanation is specific to the context of 25(2)(b), it constitutionally defines the term ‘Hindu’ to include Sikhs, Jains, and Buddhists for this purpose. The question asks about the right guaranteed to a Hindu *that includes which of the following*. Given the context of Article 25 and this explicit explanation within the article, it is clear that for certain constitutional purposes related to religious practice and social reform, the term Hindu encompasses these three religions.
Therefore, a Hindu, for the purpose of the constitutional framework including Article 25, is understood in this specific context to include persons professing the Buddhist, Jaina, and Sikh religions.
This constitutional definition in Article 25 Explanation II is primarily for the purpose of allowing the state to enact social reform laws and to ensure access to public religious institutions, treating these religions similarly for these specific purposes related to state regulation of religious affairs for social welfare. It does not mean that followers of these religions do not have their distinct religious identities or that their fundamental rights are merged into a single ‘Hindu’ identity in all respects.

43. Consider the following statements : 1. Conferment of Padma Awards do

Consider the following statements :

  • 1. Conferment of Padma Awards does not amount to conferring title under Article 18 of the Constitution of India.
  • 2. No citizen of India shall accept any title from any foreign State.
  • 3. A person not being a citizen of India can be appointed by the Government of India to any office of profit and he/she can accept any title from any foreign State.

Which of the above statements is/are not correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2019-20
The statement that is NOT correct is statement 3.
– Statement 1: Conferment of Padma Awards does not amount to conferring title under Article 18 of the Constitution of India. This statement is correct. The Supreme Court in the Balaji Raghavan vs Union of India case (1996) held that the National Awards like Bharat Ratna, Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan, and Padma Shri are not ‘titles’ within the meaning of Article 18(1) and therefore their conferment does not violate the prohibition on titles. However, the Court recommended that the awardees should not use them as prefixes or suffixes to their names.
– Statement 2: No citizen of India shall accept any title from any foreign State. This statement is correct. Article 18(2) explicitly prohibits a citizen of India from accepting any title from any foreign state.
– Statement 3: A person not being a citizen of India can be appointed by the Government of India to any office of profit and he/she can accept any title from any foreign State. This statement is incorrect. Article 18(3) states that no person who is not a citizen of India and while he holds any office of profit or trust under the State shall, without the consent of the President, accept any title from any foreign State. Thus, a non-citizen holding an office of profit under the government cannot accept a foreign title without the President’s consent; they cannot accept it freely.
Article 18 is part of the Fundamental Right to Equality and aims to abolish artificial titles that create distinctions based on status, inherited or conferred. It promotes the principle of equal status. The restrictions on accepting foreign titles apply differently to citizens and non-citizens holding office under the state.

44. Which one of the following Fundamental Rights cannot be restricted on

Which one of the following Fundamental Rights cannot be restricted on the ground of morality?

[amp_mcq option1=”Right of freedom under Article 19(1)(a)” option2=”Right under Article 25″ option3=”Right of freedom under Article 19(1)(d)” option4=”Right under Article 26″ correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2019-20
The Fundamental Right that cannot be restricted on the ground of morality is the Right of freedom under Article 19(1)(d).
Fundamental Rights are subject to certain reasonable restrictions mentioned in the clauses following the rights. We need to check the grounds for restriction for each given Article.
– A) Article 19(1)(a): Freedom of speech and expression. Restrictions under Article 19(2) can be imposed on grounds including public order, decency or *morality*.
– B) Article 25: Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion. This right is guaranteed under Article 25(1) subject to public order, *morality*, and health, and other provisions of Part III.
– C) Article 19(1)(d): Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India. Restrictions under Article 19(5) can be imposed in the interests of the general public or for the protection of the interests of any Scheduled Tribe. *Morality* is not listed as a ground for restriction under Article 19(5).
– D) Article 26: Freedom to manage religious affairs. This right is guaranteed subject to public order, *morality*, and health.
Therefore, Article 19(1)(d) is the right whose restriction clause (Article 19(5)) does not include ‘morality’ as a ground.
The grounds for imposing reasonable restrictions vary for different freedoms guaranteed under Article 19 and different rights in Part III. It is important to refer to the specific restriction clauses associated with each right (e.g., 19(2) for 19(1)(a), 19(3) for 19(1)(b), 19(4) for 19(1)(c), 19(5) for 19(1)(d), (e), (f), and 19(6) for 19(1)(g)). For religious freedoms under Articles 25 and 26, public order, morality, and health are common grounds for restriction.

45. If any person other than the one covered under Article 30 of the Const

If any person other than the one covered under Article 30 of the Constitution of India establishes a college, which Fundamental Right can be claimed by him/her for managing that institution?

[amp_mcq option1=”Right to equality under Article 14″ option2=”Right to one of the freedoms under Article 19(1)” option3=”Right under Article 29″ option4=”Right under Article 41″ correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2019-20
If a person other than one covered under Article 30 establishes a college, the Fundamental Right that can be claimed for managing that institution is the right under Article 19(1)(g).
– Article 30 grants minorities (religious or linguistic) the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. This right is specifically for minorities.
– The question concerns a person *other than* one covered under Article 30, meaning a person belonging to the majority community or a non-minority group.
– A) Article 14 (Right to equality) is relevant for non-discrimination but does not grant the specific right to establish and manage an institution.
– B) Article 19(1)(g) guarantees all citizens the right to practice any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business. The Supreme Court has held that establishing and managing an educational institution is a fundamental right available to all citizens under Article 19(1)(g), subject to reasonable restrictions under Article 19(6). This is the basis for the right of non-minorities to establish and administer educational institutions.
– C) Article 29 (Protection of interests of minorities) protects the cultural and educational rights of minorities. It is not applicable to non-minorities establishing institutions.
– D) Article 41 is a Directive Principle of State Policy related to the right to work, education, etc., not a Fundamental Right that an individual can claim to manage an institution.
The right of non-minorities to establish and administer educational institutions under Article 19(1)(g) is subject to reasonable restrictions imposed by law, which can include regulations aimed at maintaining educational standards, ensuring proper management, etc. This right is distinct from the special rights granted to minorities under Article 30.

46. Under which Article of the Constitution of India can reservations for

Under which Article of the Constitution of India can reservations for physically challenged persons be justified?

[amp_mcq option1=”Article 14 and/or Article 16(1)” option2=”Article 15(4)” option3=”Article 16(4)” option4=”Article 16(6)” correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2019-20
Reservations for physically challenged persons can be justified under Article 14 and/or Article 16(1) of the Constitution of India.
– Article 14 guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws. This principle allows for reasonable classification for the purpose of legislation, enabling the state to make special provisions for disadvantaged groups to achieve substantive equality. Physically challenged persons form such a group.
– Article 16(1) guarantees equality of opportunity in matters of public employment. This right is interpreted to allow for affirmative action measures, like reservations, to address historical disadvantages and ensure that marginalized groups, including persons with disabilities, have a fair chance in public employment.
– Articles 15(4) and 16(4) specifically deal with reservations for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Socially and Educationally Backward Classes. They are based on social and educational backwardness, not physical disability.
– Article 16(6) deals with reservations for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS).
Therefore, the constitutional justification for reservations for persons with disabilities stems from the broader principles of equality and equal opportunity enshrined in Articles 14 and 16(1), allowing the state to take affirmative steps for their inclusion and advancement.
While Articles 15(4) and 16(4) provide specific constitutional backing for reservations for certain groups, affirmative action for other disadvantaged groups, including persons with disabilities, women, etc., is typically rooted in the general principles of equality under Articles 14 and 16(1). Specific laws, like the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016, mandate these reservations, drawing their constitutional validity from these general equality provisions.

47. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”Article 370 of the Constitution of India has not been repealed.” option2=”Article 370 of the Constitution of India is no more a part of the Constitution of India.” option3=”Jammu and Kashmir has become a Union Territory by amending the Constitution of India.” option4=”The status of Jammu and Kashmir as a Union Territory is not identical with that of Delhi.” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2019-20
The statement that is NOT correct is C.
– A) Article 370 of the Constitution of India has not been repealed. This statement can be considered technically correct. Article 370 was not repealed by a constitutional amendment under Article 368. Instead, it was rendered inoperative by a Presidential Order (C.O. 272) issued under Article 370(3) itself, as modified by C.O. 272. The term used is “shall cease to be operative”.
– B) Article 370 of the Constitution of India is no more a part of the Constitution of India. This statement is incorrect. The text of Article 370 remains in the Constitution of India under Part XXI (Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions), although official versions note that it has “Ceased to be operative”. It has not been removed from the written text of the Constitution.
– C) Jammu and Kashmir has become a Union Territory by amending the Constitution of India. This statement is incorrect. The state of Jammu and Kashmir was reorganized into two Union Territories (Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir and Union Territory of Ladakh) by the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, which is an Act of Parliament, not a constitutional amendment.
– D) The status of Jammu and Kashmir as a Union Territory is not identical with that of Delhi. This statement is correct. Both J&K and Delhi are Union Territories with a legislature, but their specific powers and the constitutional provisions governing them (Art 239AA for Delhi, and the Reorganisation Act for J&K) are different. For example, police powers are handled differently.
Both statements B and C are factually incorrect. However, C describes the *method* by which J&K became a UT, which is a clear and significant factual error (Act of Parliament vs. Constitution Amendment). Statement B is also incorrect as the text of Article 370 is still present, though non-operative. Given standard UPSC phrasing, C is likely the intended incorrect statement due to the direct error regarding the legislative process used.

48. Among the riverine major ports in India, which one of the following is

Among the riverine major ports in India, which one of the following is the oldest port having been in existence for more than 100 years?

[amp_mcq option1=”Cochin Port” option2=”New Mangalore Port” option3=”Paradip Port” option4=”Kolkata Port” correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2019-20
Among the riverine major ports in India, the oldest port having been in existence for more than 100 years is Kolkata Port.
– Kolkata Port (now Syama Prasad Mookerjee Port) is located on the Hooghly River, a distributary of the Ganga. It is a riverine port. It is one of the oldest major ports in India, with operations tracing back to the era of the British East India Company in the late 17th century. It became a major port well over 100 years ago.
– Cochin Port is located on the Arabian Sea coast, not a riverine port.
– New Mangalore Port is located on the Arabian Sea coast, not a riverine port. It was commissioned in 1974.
– Paradip Port is located on the Bay of Bengal coast, near the confluence of the Mahanadi river and the sea. While it’s near a river mouth, it’s an artificial deep-water port built in the 1960s, much younger than Kolkata Port.
Kolkata Port is India’s only major riverine port. Its history is deeply intertwined with the colonial era and trade routes to Eastern India. Its long history clearly satisfies the condition of being in existence for more than 100 years.

49. Which provision of the Constitution of India refers to a political

Which provision of the Constitution of India refers to a political party?

[amp_mcq option1=”Election of the President of India under Article 55″ option2=”Disqualification for membership of the Parliament under Article 102″ option3=”Superintendence, direction and control of elections under Article 324″ option4=”Defection under Tenth Schedule” correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2019-20
The provision of the Constitution of India that refers to a political party is the Tenth Schedule.
– A) Article 55 deals with the manner of election of the President, involving an electoral college comprising elected Members of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies. It does not explicitly refer to political parties.
– B) Article 102 deals with disqualifications for membership of Parliament (e.g., holding office of profit, being of unsound mind). It does not explicitly mention political parties. Disqualification on grounds of defection, related to political parties, is provided for in the Tenth Schedule, although enabled by Article 102(2) and 191(2).
– C) Article 324 deals with the superintendence, direction, and control of elections by the Election Commission. While the Election Commission registers and recognizes political parties under statutory law (Representation of the People Act), Article 324 itself does not explicitly refer to political parties.
– D) The Tenth Schedule was added to the Constitution by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985, to deal with disqualification of Members of Parliament and State Legislatures on the ground of defection. This Schedule is entirely based on the concept of membership of a ‘political party’ and the conduct of a member in relation to their ‘legislature party’. Paragraph 2 of the Schedule directly refers to members defecting from their political party.
The Tenth Schedule is often referred to as the Anti-Defection Law. Its primary purpose is to curb political defections by members of Parliament and state legislatures from one political party to another. It explicitly uses the term “political party” and “legislature party”.

50. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”The President of India appoints the judges of the Supreme Court in accordance with the provisions of Article 124 of the Constitution of India.” option2=”The President of India appoints the judges of the Supreme Court on the basis of the recommendations of the collegium.” option3=”The President of India appoints the Chief Justice of India on the basis of the recommendations of the collegium.” option4=”The number of judges in the collegium for recommending appointment of judges in the Supreme Court and High Courts is not the same.” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2019-20
The statement that is NOT correct is C.
– Statement A: The President of India appoints the judges of the Supreme Court in accordance with the provisions of Article 124 of the Constitution of India. Article 124(2) states that every judge of the Supreme Court shall be appointed by the President. This statement is correct.
– Statement B: The President of India appoints the judges of the Supreme Court on the basis of the recommendations of the collegium. This is correct based on the judicial interpretation of Article 124 by the Supreme Court in the “Judges Cases”, establishing the collegium system where the President appoints based on the collegium’s recommendations.
– Statement C: The President of India appoints the Chief Justice of India on the basis of the recommendations of the collegium. While the collegium is involved in the process and the outgoing CJI (head of the collegium) recommends the successor, the established convention for appointing the Chief Justice of India is primarily based on seniority. The senior-most judge of the Supreme Court is usually appointed as the CJI. The collegium process for CJI is largely one of formalizing this seniority principle rather than selecting among multiple candidates based on other criteria, as is done for other judges. Stating it is appointed “on the basis of the recommendations of the collegium” may not fully capture the primary basis, which is seniority.
– Statement D: The number of judges in the collegium for recommending appointment of judges in the Supreme Court and High Courts is not the same. The Supreme Court Collegium for recommending Supreme Court judges consists of the CJI and four senior-most Supreme Court judges (total 5). The Supreme Court Collegium for recommending High Court judges consists of the CJI and two senior-most Supreme Court judges, along with the Chief Justice of the concerned High Court and two senior-most judges of that High Court (total 3 SC judges + 3 HC judges involved in the process). Thus, the composition and number of judges involved in the collegium’s recommendation process differ for SC and HC appointments. This statement is correct.

Given that A, B, and D are correct descriptions of the process and composition, statement C, due to the nuance around the seniority principle governing the appointment of the CJI versus the more discretionary selection for other judges by the collegium, is the statement that is least accurate or potentially misleading.

The collegium system has evolved through judicial interpretations (Second and Third Judges Case). While it is the basis for judicial appointments now, the specific process and factors considered differ slightly between the CJI and other judges, and between Supreme Court and High Court appointments.