31. Which one of the following member countries of G20 has presently taken

Which one of the following member countries of G20 has presently taken over the Presidency till November 30, 2023, who plays a leading role in setting the agenda and organizes the leaders’ summits?

[amp_mcq option1=”Indonesia” option2=”India” option3=”Russia” option4=”Germany” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2021-22
The correct answer is India.
India held the G20 Presidency from December 1, 2022, to November 30, 2023. The presidency plays a vital role in setting the agenda, hosting meetings, and organizing the leaders’ summit.
The G20 presidency rotates annually among member countries. Indonesia held the presidency before India in 2022, and Brazil took over from India on December 1, 2023. The G20 Summit under India’s presidency was held in New Delhi in September 2023.

32. Which one of the following policies/programmes refers to ‘Self-reliant

Which one of the following policies/programmes refers to ‘Self-reliant India’ or ‘Self-sufficient India’ for making India a bigger and more important part of the global economy ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan” option2=”National Health Mission” option3=”Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme” option4=”Atmanirbhar Bharat” correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2021-22
The correct answer is D. The term ‘Self-reliant India’ or ‘Self-sufficient India’ directly refers to the Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan.
Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan (Self-Reliant India Movement) is a policy initiative launched by the Government of India in response to the COVID-19 pandemic. Its objective is to make the country and its citizens independent and self-sufficient across various sectors of the economy by boosting domestic production and reducing reliance on imports, while also aiming to integrate India more strongly into the global economy.
Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan is a program aimed at universalizing elementary education. The National Health Mission is a comprehensive health program encompassing rural and urban health missions. The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) guarantees 100 days of wage employment in a financial year to adult members of rural households willing to do unskilled manual work. None of these directly translate to or primarily focus on ‘Self-reliant India’ in the broad economic sense intended by the question.

33. Consider the following statements: 1. The Parliament is competent t

Consider the following statements:

  • 1. The Parliament is competent to make laws on matters enumerated in the Union list and similarly, the State Legislatures are competent to make laws on matters enumerated in the State list.
  • 2. The Parliament alone has the power to make laws on matters not included in the State list or Concurrent list.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2021-22
The correct answer is C, as both statements are correct.
Statement 1 reflects the division of legislative powers between the Union and the States as laid down in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India. The Union List contains subjects on which Parliament has exclusive power to make laws, and the State List contains subjects on which State Legislatures have exclusive power. Statement 2 deals with residuary powers. Article 248 of the Constitution and Entry 97 of the Union List grant Parliament exclusive power to make laws with respect to any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent List or the State List.
The Concurrent List contains subjects on which both Parliament and State Legislatures can make laws, with Union law prevailing in case of conflict. The distribution of legislative powers is a key feature of India’s federal structure, although the Union Parliament holds significant residuary powers, leaning towards a quasi-federal system with a strong center.

34. India remains among the top three largest contributors with more than

India remains among the top three largest contributors with more than 5,700 personnel deployed in 9 of 12 UN Peacekeeping Missions. These personnel deployed are :

  • 1. Military
  • 2. Police
  • 3. Civilian

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”1 and 2 only” option3=”1, 2 and 3″ option4=”3 only” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2021-22
The correct answer is C, as India contributes personnel from all three categories to UN Peacekeeping Missions.
India is one of the largest contributors of troops and police personnel to United Nations Peacekeeping operations. UN Peacekeeping missions are composed of military personnel (troops and staff officers), police personnel (formed police units and individual police officers), and civilian staff (experts, administrators, support staff, etc.). India has historically provided and continues to provide personnel across all these components.
India’s participation in UN Peacekeeping dates back to the Korean War (1950-53) and continues to the present day. Indian peacekeepers are known for their professionalism, discipline, and dedication. India’s contribution includes significant numbers of troops and police officers deployed in various missions around the world, as well as civilian experts and advisors.

35. Consider the following statements: 1. The main sources of law in In

Consider the following statements:

  • 1. The main sources of law in India are the Constitution, Statutes (Legislations), Customary Law and Case Law.
  • 2. Decisions of the Supreme Court are not binding in all courts within the territory of India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2021-22
The correct answer is A, as only statement 1 is correct.
Statement 1 correctly identifies the primary sources of law in India: the Constitution (supreme law), Statutes enacted by legislatures (Parliament and State Legislatures), Customary Law (practices accepted as law in certain communities), and Case Law (judicial precedents, particularly decisions of the Supreme Court and High Courts). Statement 2 is incorrect because, under Article 141 of the Constitution of India, the law declared by the Supreme Court is binding on all courts within the territory of India.
Article 141 of the Constitution states, “The law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all courts within the territory of India.” This principle is fundamental to the hierarchical structure of the Indian judiciary and ensures uniformity and certainty in the interpretation and application of laws.

36. Consider the following statements: 1. The Ministry of Law and Justi

Consider the following statements:

  • 1. The Ministry of Law and Justice comprises three departments, namely the Department of Legal Affairs, the Legislative Department and the Department of Justice.
  • 2. The Indian Legal System comprises four components, namely the basic values and principles enshrined in the constitution; rights and obligations conferred by ordinary statutes; organizational set-up to enforce these rights and obligations within the constitutional norms; and the legal and judicial personnel.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2021-22
The correct answer is C, as both statements are correct.
Statement 1 accurately describes the organizational structure of the Ministry of Law and Justice in India, which is indeed composed of the Department of Legal Affairs, the Legislative Department, and the Department of Justice. Statement 2 provides a valid description of the components of the Indian legal system, encompassing the foundational principles (Constitution), the legal framework (statutes/rights and obligations), the institutional structure for enforcement, and the human resources (legal and judicial personnel) who operate within the system.
The Department of Legal Affairs advises the various Ministries/Departments of the Central Government on legal matters. The Legislative Department is concerned with drafting principal legislation for the Central Government. The Department of Justice is responsible for the administration of justice, including the appointment of judges and administrative support for the judiciary. Statement 2 describes the legal system in terms of its various interconnected elements necessary for its functioning.

37. Which of the following pairs of Women Tennis Grand Slam winners and th

Which of the following pairs of Women Tennis Grand Slam winners and their countries is/are correctly matched ?

Players Country
1. Serena Williams : USA
2. Steffi Graf : Australia
3. Margaret Court : Germany

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”1 and 2 only” option3=”2 and 3 only” option4=”3 only” correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2021-22
The correct answer is A, as only the first pair is correctly matched.
This question tests knowledge of famous female tennis players and their nationalities. Serena Williams is from the USA and is one of the most successful tennis players of all time. Steffi Graf is a retired German tennis player, not Australian. Margaret Court is a retired Australian tennis player, not German.
Serena Williams (USA) has won 23 Grand Slam singles titles. Steffi Graf (Germany) won 22 Grand Slam singles titles. Margaret Court (Australia) holds the record for the most Grand Slam singles titles with 24, although many were won before the Open Era.

38. The “Marginal Standing Facility” is a window for banks to borrow funds

The “Marginal Standing Facility” is a window for banks to borrow funds from the Reserve Bank of India at

[amp_mcq option1=”the repo rate” option2=”a rate lower than the repo rate” option3=”a rate higher than the repo rate” option4=”zero interest rate” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2021-22
The correct answer is C. The Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) rate is higher than the repo rate.
The Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) is a facility under which scheduled commercial banks can borrow additional funds overnight from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) by dipping into their Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) portfolio up to a limit. It was introduced as a safety valve against unanticipated liquidity shocks. The rate charged under MSF is a penal rate, typically higher than the prevailing repo rate.
The MSF rate is usually pegged 25 or 50 basis points above the repo rate. For instance, if the repo rate is 6.50%, the MSF rate might be 6.75%. This higher rate discourages banks from using MSF frequently and encourages them to manage their liquidity prudently. The repo rate is the rate at which commercial banks borrow money from the RBI by selling their securities to the central bank under a repurchase agreement.

39. Which of the following pairs of floristic regions is/are correctly mat

Which of the following pairs of floristic regions is/are correctly matched ?

  • 1. The Western Himalayan region : Darjeeling and Kurseong
  • 2. The Eastern Himalayan region : Kashmir to Kumaon
  • 3. The Indus Plain region : Punjab, Western Rajasthan and Northern Gujarat

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”1 and 2 only” option3=”3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2021-22
The correct answer is C, as only the third pair is correctly matched.
India is divided into various floristic regions based on climate, topography, and vegetation characteristics. Statement 1 is incorrect because Darjeeling and Kurseong are located in the Eastern Himalayan region. Statement 2 is incorrect because the region from Kashmir to Kumaon falls under the Western Himalayan region. Statement 3 correctly identifies the Indus Plain region’s coverage, which includes parts of Punjab, Western Rajasthan, and Northern Gujarat, characterized by arid and semi-arid vegetation.
Broadly, India’s floristic regions include the Western Himalayas, Eastern Himalayas, Indus Plain, Gangetic Plain, Deccan Plateau, Malabar, Assam, Central India, and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. These regions have distinct floral compositions influenced by their specific ecological conditions.

40. “SpaceX” is a private aerospace manufacturer and space transportation

“SpaceX” is a private aerospace manufacturer and space transportation company founded by which one of the following entrepreneurs ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Elon Musk” option2=”Jeff Bezos” option3=”Richard Branson” option4=”Mark Zuckerberg” correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2021-22
The correct answer is A. SpaceX was founded by Elon Musk.
SpaceX (Space Exploration Technologies Corp.) is a well-known private American aerospace manufacturer and space transportation services company. It was founded with the goal of reducing space transportation costs and ultimately enabling the colonization of Mars.
Elon Musk is a prominent entrepreneur and investor who is also the founder of Neuralink and The Boring Company, and the owner and CTO of X (formerly Twitter). Jeff Bezos is the founder of Amazon and Blue Origin. Richard Branson is the founder of the Virgin Group, including Virgin Galactic. Mark Zuckerberg is the co-founder of Facebook (Meta Platforms).