11. Consider the following statements : 1. Economy cut motion asks the d

Consider the following statements :

  • 1. Economy cut motion asks the demand of grant be reduced by ₹ 100.
  • 2. The Rajya Sabha cannot move cut motions.
  • 3. Disapproval of policy cut motion states that the amount of the demand be reduced to ₹ 1.

Which of the above statements are correct ?

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024
Statement 2 and 3 are correct. Statement 1 is incorrect as it describes a token cut motion, not an economy cut motion.
– Policy Cut: Reduces the demand to ₹ 1, signifying disapproval of the policy.
– Economy Cut: Seeks reduction by a specific amount or a lump sum, aiming at economy.
– Token Cut: Reduces the demand by ₹ 100, expressing a specific grievance.
– Cut motions can only be moved in the Lok Sabha as demands for grants are exclusively debated and voted upon there. The Rajya Sabha discusses the demands but cannot vote on them or move cut motions.
Cut motions are instruments available to the members of the Lok Sabha to express their disapproval or suggest specific changes to the demands for grants presented by the government. They are moved during the discussion on the demands for grants. The passage of a cut motion in the Lok Sabha is considered a vote of no-confidence against the government.

12. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding lapse of bi

Which one of the following statements is correct regarding lapse of bills on dissolution of the Lok Sabha?

Pending assurances that are to be examined by the Committee on Government Assurances do not lapse.
A bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha does not lapse.
A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha but not passed by the Lok Sabha lapses.
All pending assurances that are to be examined by the Committee on Government Assurances lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024
When the Lok Sabha is dissolved, most pending business before it, or pending before the Rajya Sabha but originating in the Lok Sabha, lapses. However, certain items do not lapse. These include:
1. A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha but not passed by the Lok Sabha.
2. A bill passed by both Houses but pending assent of the President.
3. A bill passed by both Houses but returned by the President for reconsideration.
4. Pending assurances which are to be examined by the Committee on Government Assurances.
Option A correctly states that pending assurances do not lapse. Option B is incorrect as a bill passed by Lok Sabha but pending in Rajya Sabha *does* lapse. Option C is incorrect because a bill pending in Rajya Sabha but *not* passed by the Lok Sabha *does not* lapse. Option D is the opposite of A and thus incorrect.
– Dissolution of Lok Sabha causes most pending bills to lapse.
– Bills originating and pending only in Rajya Sabha do not lapse.
– Pending assurances before the Committee on Government Assurances do not lapse.
The lapsing of bills upon dissolution is a significant feature of the parliamentary system as it reflects the mandate of the new Lok Sabha. The business that does not lapse includes items that are either outside the purview of just the Lok Sabha (like bills originating in Rajya Sabha or pending Presidential action) or relate to ongoing scrutiny (like assurances).

13. Consider the following statements: 1. The maximum gap between two se

Consider the following statements:

  • 1. The maximum gap between two sessions of Parliament cannot be more than four months.
  • 2. Presiding officer can call a sitting of the House at any time after the House has been adjourned sine die.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024
Statement 1 is incorrect: As per Article 85(1) of the Constitution, the President shall summon each House of Parliament to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit, but six months shall not intervene between its last sitting in one session and the date appointed for its first sitting in the next session. Thus, the maximum gap is six months, not four months.
Statement 2 is correct: When a House is adjourned ‘sine die’, it means the House is adjourned without naming a day for reassembly. The power to summon the House again after it has been adjourned sine die rests with the Presiding Officer (Speaker in case of Lok Sabha, Chairman in case of Rajya Sabha), who can call a sitting of the House at any time.
– The maximum gap between two sessions of Parliament is six months.
– The Presiding Officer can summon the House after it is adjourned sine die.
Adjournment sine die is a powerful tool for the presiding officer, allowing flexibility in scheduling parliamentary business. The six-month limit between sessions ensures that Parliament meets at least twice a year, although typically, there are three sessions (Budget, Monsoon, Winter).

14. Consider the following statements: 1. Presiding officer of a House d

Consider the following statements:

  • 1. Presiding officer of a House does not vote in the first instance.
  • 2. Presiding officer can permit a member to address the House in his/her mother tongue.
  • 3. Attorney General can take part in proceedings as well as vote in both Houses due to constitutional nature of the post.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024
Statement 1 is correct: The presiding officer (Speaker of Lok Sabha or Chairman of Rajya Sabha) does not vote in the first instance. They can exercise a casting vote only in the case of a tie to resolve a deadlock.
Statement 2 is correct: Article 120 of the Constitution allows members to speak in Hindi, English, or if they cannot adequately express themselves in either, in their mother tongue with the permission of the presiding officer. Simultaneous translation facilities are often provided.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Article 88 of the Constitution allows the Attorney General of India to take part in the proceedings of either House of Parliament, any joint sitting of the Houses, and any committee of Parliament of which he may be named a member, but he shall not by virtue of this article be entitled to vote.
– Presiding officers cast a vote only in case of a tie.
– Members can speak in their mother tongue with the presiding officer’s permission.
– The Attorney General can participate in proceedings but cannot vote.
The principle of the presiding officer not voting in the first instance is borrowed from British parliamentary practice to ensure impartiality. The provision for speaking in the mother tongue acknowledges linguistic diversity within Parliament. The Attorney General’s role is primarily advisory to the Parliament, hence the right to participate but not vote.

15. Which one of the following cities of Indian Union Territories is renam

Which one of the following cities of Indian Union Territories is renamed as ‘Sri Vijaya Puram’ ?

Daman
Port Blair
Puducherry
Leh
This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024
In recent years, there has been a proposal or discussion to rename Port Blair, the capital of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, to ‘Sri Vijaya Puram’ in honor of the Chola dynasty’s historical influence and maritime reach into Southeast Asia (often referred to as Sri Vijaya empire in historical contexts relevant to their expeditions). While the renaming might not be officially finalized or implemented at a central level, the question refers to which city is *renamed* or associated with this name, pointing to Port Blair based on these proposals/discussions.
– Port Blair is the city proposed or discussed for renaming as ‘Sri Vijaya Puram’.
– The renaming is linked to historical Chola influence.
The proposal to rename Port Blair is often linked to celebrating the historical maritime links of India, particularly the Chola Empire, which had extensive naval activities and influence extending to Southeast Asia. However, such renaming proposals often involve bureaucratic processes and public consultation before official implementation.

16. Which of the following countries are involved in the ‘TAPI Pipeline’ p

Which of the following countries are involved in the ‘TAPI Pipeline’ project to transfer natural gas ?

Turkmenistan - Afghanistan - Pakistan - India
Turkey - Azerbaijan - Philippines - Indonesia
Tajikistan - Afghanistan - Pakistan - India
Thailand - Azerbaijan - Philippines - Indonesia
This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024
The TAPI Pipeline is a natural gas pipeline project designed to transport natural gas from Turkmenistan through Afghanistan and Pakistan to India. The name TAPI is an acronym derived from the first letters of the participating countries: Turkmenistan, Afghanistan, Pakistan, and India.
– TAPI stands for Turkmenistan, Afghanistan, Pakistan, and India.
– It is a natural gas pipeline project.
The project aims to monetize Turkmenistan’s vast gas reserves, particularly from the Galkynysh field, and provide a long-term energy source for Afghanistan, Pakistan, and India. The pipeline’s construction has faced numerous challenges, including security risks in Afghanistan and financing issues.

17. Pyrenees Mountains form a natural border between which of the followin

Pyrenees Mountains form a natural border between which of the following two countries ?

Germany and Switzerland
Norway and Sweden
Hungary and Romania
Spain and France
This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024
The Pyrenees Mountains form a prominent natural barrier and border between the Iberian Peninsula (primarily Spain and Andorra) and mainland Europe (primarily France).
– The Pyrenees Mountains separate Spain and France.
– They form a natural border.
The mountain range stretches approximately 491 kilometers (305 miles) from the Bay of Biscay to the Mediterranean Sea. The Principality of Andorra is nestled in the eastern part of the mountain range, bordered by both Spain and France.

18. What is the primary habitat of the ‘Red Squirrel’ ?

What is the primary habitat of the ‘Red Squirrel’ ?

Tropical rainforests
Desert regions
Coniferous forests
Grasslands
This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024
The Red Squirrel (Sciurus vulgaris) is primarily found in coniferous forests across Eurasia. While they can inhabit mixed or broadleaf woodlands, their main habitat preference, especially in the UK and parts of Europe, is often associated with coniferous tree species that provide a reliable food source (cones) and shelter.
– The Red Squirrel’s main habitat is coniferous forests.
– They are native to Europe and Asia.
The Red Squirrel’s range extends across much of Europe and Asia. In some areas, its populations have declined due to habitat loss and competition from the introduced Eastern Grey Squirrel (Sciurus carolinensis). Coniferous forests offer a consistent food source through the year in the form of seeds from cones, which is crucial for their survival, particularly in winter.

19. Archaeologists have recently discovered a 7000-year-old prehistoric se

Archaeologists have recently discovered a 7000-year-old prehistoric settlement in which one of the following countries ?

Serbia
Bulgaria
Romania
Finland
This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024
In recent years, archaeologists have made significant discoveries of ancient settlements in Serbia, including a large 7,000-year-old prehistoric village belonging to the Vinca culture near the town of Prokuplje.
– A 7,000-year-old prehistoric settlement was discovered in Serbia.
– The discovery is linked to the Vinca culture.
The Vinca culture was a Neolithic archaeological culture in Southeastern Europe, dating from the 6th to 3rd millennia BCE. They are known for their settlements, pottery, and early forms of symbols or proto-writing. The discovery in Serbia provides valuable insights into the life, economy, and social structure of these early European farming communities.

20. Which one of the following organizations successfully conducted the fi

Which one of the following organizations successfully conducted the first Pre-Burner Ignition trial for a semi-cryogenic engine (SCE)-200 ?

ISRO
DRDO
HAL
CSIR
This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024
The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) successfully conducted the first Pre-Burner Ignition trial of its SCE-200 semi-cryogenic engine at its propulsion research complex (IPRC) in Mahendragiri, Tamil Nadu.
– ISRO is developing the SCE-200 semi-cryogenic engine.
– The Pre-Burner Ignition trial is a key step in engine development.
The SCE-200 engine is designed to power the future heavy-lift launch vehicles of ISRO. Semi-cryogenic engines use Liquid Oxygen (LOX) and ISRO’s indigenous RP-1 (a refined form of kerosene) as propellants, offering a higher thrust capacity compared to fully cryogenic engines. The Pre-Burner Ignition is a critical process where a small amount of propellants is ignited to generate hot gases that drive the turbo-pump, which then supplies main propellants to the combustion chamber.