UPSC Combined Section Officer Archives

1. Which Government agency is responsible for conducting the ‘Economic Ce

Which Government agency is responsible for conducting the ‘Economic Census’ in India?

The Reserve Bank of India

The Ministry of Finance

The Ministry of Corporate Affairs

The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation

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UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2019-20

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The correct option is D) The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.

The Economic Census in India is a complete count of all establishments located within the geographical boundary of India. It is conducted periodically by the Central Statistical Office (CSO) which is under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).

The Economic Census provides disaggregated information on the structure and distribution of economic activities, excluding those in crop production and plantation. The first Economic Census was conducted in 1977. As of 2020, seven such censuses have been conducted, the latest being in 2019-2020.

2. Which among the following represent the correct colours of five intert

Which among the following represent the correct colours of five intertwined rings on the Olympic Flag?

Blue, White, Black, Green and Red

Blue, Yellow, Black, Green and Red

Purple, Yellow, Black, Green and Red

Blue, Yellow, Black, Green and Brown

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UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2019-20

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The correct option is B. The correct colours of the five intertwined rings on the Olympic Flag are Blue, Yellow, Black, Green, and Red.

– The symbol of the Olympic Games consists of five interlaced rings of equal dimensions, used alone, in one or in five different colours which are, from left to right in the original version, blue, yellow, black, green, and red.
– The rings are placed against a white background.
– These five rings represent the five inhabited continents of the world (the Americas are considered as one continent, as are Africa, Asia, Europe, and Oceania), united by Olympism.
– The colours were chosen by Baron Pierre de Coubertin in 1912 because at least one of these six colours (including the white background) was present in the national flag of every competing nation at the time.

The Olympic flag, featuring the five rings on a white background, was adopted in 1914 but first flown at the 1920 Summer Olympics in Antwerp, Belgium.

3. The ‘Foreign Direct Investment’ policy in India is regulated by

The ‘Foreign Direct Investment’ policy in India is regulated by

the Ministry of Commerce and Industry

the Reserve Bank of India

the Ministry of External Affairs

the Securities and Exchange Board of India

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UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2019-20

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The correct option is A. The Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) policy in India is primarily regulated by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

– Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) policy in India is framed and reviewed by the Government of India.
– The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, is the nodal department for formulating FDI policy. It is responsible for the calculation, announcement, and implementation of FDI policies, including permissible sectors, entry routes (automatic or government approval), and caps.
– While the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the administrator of the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999, and handles the operational aspects related to FDI inflow and outflow (like prescribing procedures, reporting requirements, etc.), the overarching policy framework is laid down by the government, specifically DPIIT.
– The Ministry of External Affairs deals with foreign relations and diplomacy, not domestic economic policies like FDI regulation.
– The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) regulates the securities markets and portfolio investments (like Foreign Portfolio Investment – FPI), but not the core FDI policy.

FDI can come through two routes: Automatic Route (where no prior government approval is needed) and Government Route (where prior approval from the concerned ministry/department is required, routed through the Foreign Investment Facilitation Portal).

4. Which one of the following is not correct pertaining to the eligibilit

Which one of the following is not correct pertaining to the eligibility for the appointment of the Chief of Defence Staff in India?

An officer must be either serving or retired Lieutenant General

An officer must be either serving or retired Air Marshal

An officer must be either serving or retired Vice Admiral

An officer must be either serving or retired JCO ranks

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UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2019-20

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The correct option is D. An officer must be either serving or retired JCO ranks is not correct pertaining to the eligibility for the appointment of the Chief of Defence Staff in India.

– The Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) is a four-star officer who is the head of the Indian Armed Forces, serving as the principal military advisor to the Defence Minister and head of the Department of Military Affairs.
– The government notified the eligibility criteria for the appointment of the CDS in 2022.
– As per the rules, any serving or retired Lieutenant General, Air Marshal, or Vice Admiral (and equivalent ranks in the Army, Air Force, and Navy respectively) who is below the age of 62 years at the time of appointment is eligible.
– The retirement age for CDS is 65 years.
– Lieutenant General, Air Marshal, and Vice Admiral are three-star ranks.
– Junior Commissioned Officers (JCOs) are a separate class of officers in the Indian military, ranking above Non-Commissioned Officers (NCOs) and below Commissioned Officers. They are not eligible for the highest ranks like CDS.

The first CDS was General Bipin Rawat. The CDS position was created to bring synergy among the three services (Army, Navy, and Air Force) and act as the single point of contact for the government on military matters.

5. Consider the following statements about the ‘Agniveer’ scheme for Indi

Consider the following statements about the ‘Agniveer’ scheme for Indian youth to serve in the armed forces :

1. Aspirants will be appointed on the contract basis for a period of four years.
2. Young people in the age group of 18-22 years can join.
3. The age limit was later increased to 23 years for the first batch of the aspirants.
4. Up to 20% of each batch will be enrolled as regular cadre.

Which of the above statements are not correct?

1 and 2

2 and 3

1 and 4

2 and 4

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UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2019-20

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The correct option is D. Statements 2 and 4 are not correct about the ‘Agniveer’ scheme (Agnipath scheme).

– The Agnipath scheme recruits personnel below the rank of commissioned officers into the three services of the Indian Armed Forces. Recruits under this scheme are known as ‘Agniveers’.
– Statement 1: Aspirants will be appointed on the contract basis for a period of four years. This is correct. Agniveers are enrolled for a service period of four years, which includes training period.
– Statement 2: Young people in the age group of 18-22 years can join. This is incorrect. The eligible age range for prospective Agniveers is 17.5 years to 21 years.
– Statement 3: The age limit was later increased to 23 years for the first batch of the aspirants. This is correct. Due to protests and considering the impact of the COVID-19 pandemic on recruitment, the government announced a one-time relaxation in the upper age limit to 23 years for the recruitment cycle of 2022.
– Statement 4: Up to 20% of each batch will be enrolled as regular cadre. This is incorrect. After the completion of the four-year tenure, up to 25% of each batch of Agniveers may be absorbed into the regular cadre based on organizational requirements and their performance during the four years.

The Agnipath scheme aims to create a youthful profile of the Armed Forces and provides an opportunity for youth to serve the country. Those not absorbed into the regular cadre after four years will receive a ‘Seva Nidhi’ package and skills certifications to help them in civilian life.

6. Which one of the following statements is correct pertaining to power g

Which one of the following statements is correct pertaining to power given to police under the Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act, 2022?

It empowers the police to obtain physical and biological samples of only convicts of crime.

It empowers the police to obtain physical and biological samples of only accused of crime.

It empowers the police to obtain physical and biological samples of only suspected persons of crime.

It empowers the police to obtain physical and biological samples of convicts and those accused of crime.

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UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2019-20

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The correct option is D. The Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act, 2022 empowers the police to obtain physical and biological samples of convicts and those accused of crime.

– The Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act, 2022 replaced the Identification of Prisoners Act, 1920.
– The new Act significantly expands the scope of individuals whose measurements can be taken.
– It permits collection of “measurements” (which include finger-impressions, palm-print impressions, foot-print impressions, photographs, iris and retina scans, physical and biological samples and their analysis, behavioural attributes including signatures, handwriting or any other examination) from:
– Convicted persons.
– Persons arrested for any offence.
– Persons ordered by a Magistrate to give measurements.
– Persons in preventive detention.
– Option A is incorrect because it is not limited to only convicts.
– Option B is incorrect because it is not limited to only accused persons.
– Option C is incorrect as “suspected persons” is too broad; the Act specifies categories like arrested persons and those ordered by a Magistrate.
– Option D correctly identifies that the Act applies to both convicts and those accused of crime (persons arrested for any offence fall under the category of accused).

The Act aims to enhance the use of modern techniques for criminal investigation by allowing for the collection and storage of a wider range of identifying data. It also provides for the digital storage of these records for up to 75 years.

7. According to the India’s State of Forest Report, 2021, based on area-w

According to the India’s State of Forest Report, 2021, based on area-wise, which one of the following States is having the largest forest cover in the country?

Madhya Pradesh

Arunachal Pradesh

Chhattisgarh

Maharashtra

This question was previously asked in

UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2019-20

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The correct option is A. According to the India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2021, Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest cover in the country based on area.

– The India State of Forest Report (ISFR) is a biennial report published by the Forest Survey of India (FSI), which assesses the forest and tree resources of the country.
– As per the ISFR 2021, the top five states in terms of forest cover area are:
1. Madhya Pradesh
2. Arunachal Pradesh
3. Chhattisgarh
4. Odisha
5. Maharashtra
– The question specifically asks for the state with the largest forest cover based on *area-wise*.

It is important to distinguish between forest cover by area and forest cover as a percentage of the total geographical area. In terms of percentage of total geographical area, the top five states are Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, Manipur, and Nagaland. Arunachal Pradesh appears in both lists but tops in percentage in the Northeast and is second in overall area.

8. The ‘Production Linked Incentive (PLI)’ scheme was launched to promote

The ‘Production Linked Incentive (PLI)’ scheme was launched to promote domestic manufacturing in various sectors. Which of the following sectors were covered under this scheme?

1. Pharmaceuticals
2. Electronics
3. Textiles
4. Automobiles

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1 and 2 only

3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

2, 3 and 4 only

This question was previously asked in

UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2019-20

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The correct option is C. All four listed sectors – Pharmaceuticals, Electronics, Textiles, and Automobiles – were covered under the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme.

– The Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme is an initiative by the Government of India to boost domestic manufacturing and reduce import bills. It aims to provide incentives to companies on increased sales from products manufactured in domestic units.
– The scheme was first launched for three sectors in March 2020 (Large Scale Electronics Manufacturing, critical Key Starting Materials/Drug Intermediates and APIs, and Manufacturing of Medical Devices).
– Subsequently, the scheme was expanded to cover a total of 14 key sectors to create national manufacturing global champions.
– The sectors covered include Mobile Manufacturing & Specified Electronic Components, Pharmaceuticals drugs, Textiles (Technical Textiles, Man-Made Fibre segments), Automobiles & Auto Components, Telecommunication & Networking Products, Advanced Chemistry Cell (ACC) Battery, Food Products, High-Efficiency Solar PV Modules, White Goods (ACs and LEDs), Specialty Steel, Medical Devices, Drones and Drone Components, IT Hardware, and Pharma (previously covered, expanded scope).
– All the sectors listed in the question (Pharmaceuticals, Electronics, Textiles, Automobiles) are part of the expanded list of sectors covered under the PLI scheme.

The objective of the PLI scheme is to make India a global manufacturing hub by encouraging domestic manufacturing, attracting foreign investment, and boosting exports.

9. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 provides for the establishment of

The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 provides for the establishment of the

Anti-Corruption Bureau

Corruption Eradication Commission

Ombudsman for Corruption Cases

Special Investigation Team

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UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2019-20

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The correct option is C. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 provides for the establishment of the Ombudsman for Corruption Cases (referred to as Lokpal at the Union level).

– The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 establishes the institution of Lokpal at the central level and requires states to establish the institution of Lokayukta.
– The Lokpal is an independent statutory body that inquires into allegations of corruption against certain public functionaries, including the Prime Minister, ministers, and Members of Parliament.
– The term “Ombudsman” is derived from Swedish and refers to an official appointed to investigate individuals’ complaints against maladministration, especially that of public organizations. The Lokpal institution in India is modeled on the concept of an Ombudsman, specifically dealing with corruption complaints against public servants.
– The options A, B, and D do not accurately describe the institution established by the Act. Anti-Corruption Bureau is typically a police wing, Corruption Eradication Commission is not the official name, and a Special Investigation Team is formed for specific cases, not a permanent overarching body like the Lokpal.

The Lokpal consists of a Chairperson and a maximum of eight Members, half of whom are required to be judicial Members, and minimum fifty percent of the Members shall be from SC, ST, OBC, Minorities, and women. The jurisdiction of Lokpal covers a wide range of public functionaries.

10. Which one of the following statements relating to the Constitution of

Which one of the following statements relating to the Constitution of India is not correct?

The provisions of Articles 324 to 329 apply equally to States as well as Union Territories.

Only some of the provisions of Articles 324 to 329 apply to one Union Territory.

The provisions of Articles 124(4) and 124(5) apply to both the Supreme Court and all the High Courts.

The definition of 'State' provided under Article 12 applies to both the Fundamental Rights as well as the Directive Principles of State Policy.

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UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2019-20

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The correct option is A. The statement that the provisions of Articles 324 to 329 apply equally to States as well as Union Territories is not correct.

– Articles 324 to 329 of the Constitution deal with elections, establishing the Election Commission of India and defining its powers and responsibilities for conducting elections to Parliament and State Legislatures, as well as to the offices of President and Vice-President.
– While these provisions apply to States, their application to Union Territories (UTs) is not necessarily ‘equal’. Some UTs have their own legislatures (e.g., Delhi, Puducherry, Jammu and Kashmir), for which election provisions similar to State Legislatures apply. However, UTs without legislatures (like Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep) only have elections for representation in Parliament. Therefore, the full set of provisions related to both Parliament and State Legislature elections from Articles 324-329 does not apply ‘equally’ to all UTs compared to States, or even equally across all types of UTs.
– Statement B is plausible as in a UT without a legislature, only provisions related to parliamentary elections from Articles 324-329 would apply, meaning “only some” apply.
– Statement C is correct because Article 218 makes the provisions of clauses (4) and (5) of Article 124 (relating to removal of Supreme Court judges and Parliament’s power to regulate procedure) applicable to High Court judges.
– Statement D is correct because Article 36 explicitly states that the definition of “the State” in Part IV (Directive Principles) is the same as in Part III (Fundamental Rights), where Article 12 defines “the State”.

Article 324 provides the general power of superintendence, direction, and control of elections in the Election Commission. Article 325 deals with electoral rolls, 326 with adult suffrage, 327 with power of Parliament to make laws relating to elections, 328 with power of Legislature of a State to make laws relating to elections to such Legislature, and 329 bars interference by courts in electoral matters. The scope of these articles varies depending on whether a State Legislature exists in a UT.