UPSC Combined Section Officer Archives

1. Consider the following statements : According to the RTI Act, 2005, as

Consider the following statements :
According to the RTI Act, 2005, as far as exempted organizations are concerned, the exemption applies to

1. certain organizations of the Central Government as listed in the Second Schedule and to the information submitted by these organizations to Central Government.
2. certain organizations of the State Governments as may be notified by them in the Official Gazette, but not to the information furnished by these organisations to the respective State Governments.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

This question was previously asked in

UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024

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Statement 1 is incorrect. Section 24 of the RTI Act, 2005 exempts certain intelligence and security organizations listed in the Second Schedule (established by the Central Government) and those notified by State Governments from the purview of the Act. However, this exemption is for the organization itself and the information it holds, with a crucial proviso that information pertaining to allegations of corruption and human rights violations is not exempt. Statement 1 incorrectly suggests that the exemption also applies to information *submitted by* these organizations to the Central Government. Once information is submitted to a non-exempt public authority, its accessibility is governed by the general provisions of the Act applicable to that public authority, not the S. 24 exemption of the originating body.
Statement 2 is correct. Section 24(4) allows State Governments to notify intelligence and security organizations as exempt. The proviso regarding corruption and human rights violations also applies to these state organizations. The statement correctly notes that the exemption applies to certain State Government organizations. The phrase “but not to the information furnished by these organisations to the respective State Governments” implies that information submitted by these exempted state bodies to the state government (a non-exempt entity) is not covered by the S. 24 exemption, which is consistent with the interpretation that the exemption applies to the organization and its records, not to information transmitted elsewhere.

– Section 24 of the RTI Act exempts certain intelligence and security organizations.
– The exemption is primarily for the organization and the information it holds.
– Information pertaining to corruption and human rights violations is not exempt under Section 24.
– Information furnished by an exempted organization to a non-exempt public authority is generally subject to the RTI Act provisions applicable to the receiving authority, not the S. 24 exemption of the originating body.

The Second Schedule lists various Central intelligence and security agencies like IB, RAW, Directorate of Enforcement, etc. State Governments can similarly notify their intelligence and security agencies. The rationale is to protect sensitive information critical for national or state security and intelligence gathering. However, the accountability for corruption and human rights abuses by these agencies is maintained through the proviso allowing access to such information.

2. How many schedules does the RTI Act, 2005 have ?

How many schedules does the RTI Act, 2005 have ?

This question was previously asked in

UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024

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The RTI Act, 2005 has 2 schedules.

– The First Schedule contains the form of oath or affirmation to be made by the Chief Information Commissioner, Information Commissioners, State Chief Information Commissioner and State Information Commissioners.
– The Second Schedule lists the intelligence and security organizations established by the Central Government which are exempted from the purview of the Act.

While certain organizations listed in the Second Schedule are exempted, information pertaining to allegations of corruption and human rights violations is not excluded, provided that such information is given only after the approval of the Central Information Commission.

3. Consider the following statements : 1. The Second Schedule of the R

Consider the following statements :

1. The Second Schedule of the RTI Act, 2005 lists the intelligence and security organizations established by the Central Government that are exempted from the purview of the RTI Act, 2005.
2. All the Government organisations come under the purview of RTI Act, 2005.
3. all departmental information of Central and State Governments.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

1 only

2 only

3 only

1, 2 and 3

This question was previously asked in

UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024

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Only statement 1 is correct. Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect.

– Statement 1 is correct as the Second Schedule lists the specific intelligence and security organizations exempted from the Act’s purview.
– Statement 2 is incorrect. Not all government organizations come under the Act. Certain organizations (listed in the Second Schedule) are exempted, and also the Act defines ‘public authority’ which covers government bodies and substantially funded NGOs/bodies, but not necessarily *all* organizations related to the government in some way.
– Statement 3 is incorrect. The RTI Act provides for exemptions from disclosure of certain types of information under Sections 8 and 9, such as information affecting national security, international relations, commercial confidence, personal privacy, etc. Therefore, not *all* departmental information of Central and State Governments is accessible under the Act.

The RTI Act aims to promote transparency and accountability in the working of every public authority, but it balances this with the need to protect certain sensitive information and the operational capabilities of specific organizations.

4. Time limit for filing first appeal by an applicant under Sub-section (

Time limit for filing first appeal by an applicant under Sub-section (1) of Section 19 of RTI Act, 2005 is

10 days from the receipt of PIO's decision

30 days from the receipt of PIO's decision

40 days from the receipt of PIO's decision

45 days from the receipt of PIO's decision

This question was previously asked in

UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024

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The time limit for filing the first appeal by an applicant under Sub-section (1) of Section 19 of the RTI Act, 2005 is 30 days from the receipt of the PIO’s decision.

– Section 19(1) of the RTI Act, 2005 states: “Any person who does not receive a decision within the time specified in sub-section (1) or clause (a) of sub-section (3) of section 7, or is aggrieved by a decision of the Central Public Information Officer or State Public Information Officer, as the case may be, may within thirty days of the receipt of the decision make an appeal to such officer who is senior in rank to the Central Public Information Officer or State Public Information Officer as the case may be, in each public authority…”
– The time limit can be extended for a further period of 15 days if sufficient cause is shown by the appellant.

If the first appellate authority’s decision is not satisfactory or not provided within the stipulated time, a second appeal can be filed with the Central Information Commission (CIC) or State Information Commission (SIC) under Section 19(3) of the Act.

5. Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) works under which one o

Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) works under which one of the following ministries of the Government of India ?

Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare

Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

Ministry of Science and Technology

Ministry of Rural Development

This question was previously asked in

UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024

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The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) works under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.

– GEAC is the apex body constituted under the Rules for the Manufacture, Use/Import/Export and Storage of Hazardous Micro Organisms, Genetically Engineered Organisms or Cells, 1989.
– These rules are notified under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
– GEAC is responsible for appraisal of activities involving large scale use of hazardous micro organisms and recombinants in research and industrial production from the environmental angle, and proposals relating to release of genetically engineered organisms and products into the environment including experimental field trials.

GEAC’s decisions are crucial for regulating the use and release of genetically modified organisms (GMOs) and their products in India, considering their potential impact on the environment and human health.

6. NOTTO comes under which one of the following ministries of the Governm

NOTTO comes under which one of the following ministries of the Government of India ?

Ministry of Water Resources

Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs

Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

Ministry of Power

This question was previously asked in

UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024

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NOTTO comes under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

– NOTTO stands for National Organ and Tissue Transplant Organisation.
– It is a national-level organization established under the Directorate General of Health Services, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
– NOTTO is responsible for establishing a network for organ and tissue procurement and distribution, maintaining registries, and promoting deceased organ donation.

NOTTO plays a crucial role in regulating and streamlining the process of organ donation and transplantation activities in India, adhering to the Transplantation of Human Organs and Tissues Act, 1994.

7. Electric Mobility Promotion Scheme 2024 is introduced by which one of

Electric Mobility Promotion Scheme 2024 is introduced by which one of the following ministries of the Government of India ?

Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas

Ministry of Heavy Industries

Ministry of Power

Ministry of Earth Sciences

This question was previously asked in

UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024

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The Electric Mobility Promotion Scheme 2024 is introduced by the Ministry of Heavy Industries.

– The scheme aims to promote the adoption of electric vehicles in India.
– It specifically focuses on providing incentives for electric two-wheelers and three-wheelers to accelerate their adoption and growth.
– The Ministry of Heavy Industries is responsible for the development and promotion of the heavy engineering and automotive industries in India, including electric vehicles.

This scheme is a successor to the FAME (Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of (Hybrid &) Electric Vehicles) India scheme, aiming to provide continued support for electric vehicle adoption, especially in the context of achieving India’s climate goals and reducing dependency on fossil fuels.

8. ULLAS initiative is related to which one of the following sectors ?

ULLAS initiative is related to which one of the following sectors ?

Education sector

Health sector

Agriculture sector

Finance sector

This question was previously asked in

UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024

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The ULLAS initiative is related to the Education sector.

– ULLAS stands for “Understanding Lifelong Learning for All in Society”.
– It is a flagship program of the Ministry of Education focusing on promoting literacy and lifelong learning across the country.
– The initiative aims to bridge basic literacy gaps and promote functional literacy, vocational skills, and critical life skills among learners.

The ULLAS initiative is implemented under the Centrally Sponsored Scheme “Nav Bharat Saksharta Karyakram (New India Literacy Programme)” for the period 2022-27.

9. Which one of the following ministries of the Government of India launc

Which one of the following ministries of the Government of India launched the Digital Intelligence Platform and ‘Chakshu’ facility on Sanchar Saathi portal?

Ministry of Power

Ministry of Civil Aviation

Ministry of Communication

Ministry of Earth Sciences

This question was previously asked in

UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024

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The Digital Intelligence Platform and ‘Chakshu’ facility on Sanchar Saathi portal were launched by the Ministry of Communication.

– The Sanchar Saathi portal is an initiative by the Department of Telecommunications under the Ministry of Communication.
– The portal and its facilities like ‘Chakshu’ and Digital Intelligence Platform (DIP) are aimed at empowering citizens, enhancing security, and preventing cyber frauds by allowing users to check the authenticity of mobile connections, report suspicious communication, and trace lost/stolen phones.

‘Chakshu’ allows citizens to report suspected fraud communication received over call, SMS, or WhatsApp, while the Digital Intelligence Platform facilitates real-time intelligence sharing and coordination among stakeholders for combating digital fraud.

10. Consider the following statements regarding enactment of budget in the

Consider the following statements regarding enactment of budget in the Parliament :

1. Railway Budget used to be presented before the General Budget.
2. The Finance bill must be enacted within 75 days of its introduction.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

1 only

2 only

Neither 1 nor 2

Both 1 and 2

This question was previously asked in

UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024

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Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

– Historically, the Railway Budget was presented separately before the General Budget. This practice was merged with the Union Budget in 2017.
– The Finance Bill contains the government’s financial proposals for the upcoming financial year, including tax proposals. The Provisional Collection of Taxes Act, 1931, allows the government to collect certain taxes for a period of up to 75 days immediately after the Finance Bill is introduced, pending its final enactment. This effectively requires the Finance Bill to be enacted within 75 days of its introduction to make these tax proposals permanent.

The budget enactment process involves several stages in Parliament, including presentation of the budget, general discussion, scrutiny by departmental standing committees, voting on demands for grants in the Lok Sabha, passing of the Appropriation Bill (authorising expenditure), and passing of the Finance Bill (giving effect to tax proposals).