UPSC CDS-2 Archives

41. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List-I (Type of Deficit)	List-II (Explanation)
A. Fiscal Deficit	1. Total Expenditure – Revenue Receipts & Non-debt Capital Receipts
B. Revenue Deficit	2. Revenue Expenditure – Revenue Receipts
C. Effective Revenue Deficit	3. Revenue Deficit – Grants for Creation of Capital Assets
D. Primary Deficit	4. Fiscal Deficit – Interest Payments

[amp_mcq option1=”A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4″ option2=”A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4″ option3=”A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1″ option4=”A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1″ correct=”option1″]

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The question asks to match different types of government deficits with their definitions. The definitions provided in List-II correspond directly to the standard definitions of these fiscal terms as used in government budgeting.

– **Fiscal Deficit:** Represents the total borrowing requirement of the government. It is calculated as Total Expenditure minus the sum of Revenue Receipts and Non-debt Capital Receipts. The formula A-1 is correct.
– **Revenue Deficit:** Occurs when the government’s revenue expenditure exceeds its revenue receipts. The formula B-2 is correct.
– **Effective Revenue Deficit:** Introduced to account for grants given by the Union Government to State Governments for the creation of capital assets. It is calculated as Revenue Deficit minus Grants for Creation of Capital Assets. The formula C-3 is correct.
– **Primary Deficit:** Represents the fiscal deficit excluding interest payments on previous borrowings. It indicates the government’s current year’s borrowing requirement to meet expenditure other than interest payments. The formula D-4 is correct.

Understanding different types of deficits is crucial for analyzing the fiscal health and policies of the government. While Revenue Deficit reflects a mismatch in the revenue account, Fiscal Deficit indicates the total resource gap. Primary Deficit helps understand the impact of current fiscal stance excluding the burden of past debt. Effective Revenue Deficit was a concept introduced to acknowledge that revenue expenditure includes grants that create future assets.

42. In India, the base year of the new GDP series has been shifted from 20

In India, the base year of the new GDP series has been shifted from 2004-05 to

[amp_mcq option1=”2007-08″ option2=”2008-09″ option3=”2010-11″ option4=”2011-12″ correct=”option4″]

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The correct answer is 2011-12.

In January 2015, the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MOSPI) in India announced a change in the base year for calculating Gross Domestic Product (GDP) estimates from 2004-05 to 2011-12. Along with the base year revision, the methodology for calculating GDP was also revised, bringing it closer to international standards (like the UN System of National Accounts, SNA 2008).

Periodically revising the base year for GDP calculations is necessary to reflect changes in the structure of the economy, prices, and production processes. The new series aimed to capture economic activities more comprehensively, including improvements in data collection methods and incorporation of new data sources like the Ministry of Corporate Affairs database.

43. Which of the following indicators have been used by the World Economic

Which of the following indicators have been used by the World Economic Forum to calculate Global Competitiveness Index for 2016-17?

Efficiency enhancer subindex
Innovation and sophistication factors subindex
Life expectancy enhancer subindex

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”2 and 3 only” option3=”1 and 3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option1″]

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The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

The World Economic Forum’s Global Competitiveness Index (GCI) framework typically assesses national competitiveness based on a set of pillars, which are grouped into three sub-indices:
1. Basic Requirements (institutions, infrastructure, macroeconomic environment, health and primary education)
2. Efficiency Enhancers (higher education and training, goods market efficiency, labor market efficiency, financial market development, technological readiness, market size)
3. Innovation and Sophistication Factors (business sophistication, innovation)
Statements 1 (Efficiency enhancer subindex) and 2 (Innovation and sophistication factors subindex) correspond to two of these main sub-indices. Statement 3 (“Life expectancy enhancer subindex”) is not a component used in the GCI framework. While health is a pillar under ‘Basic Requirements’, there isn’t a dedicated ‘Life expectancy enhancer subindex’.

The GCI framework and its pillars have been refined over the years, but the general structure around Basic Requirements, Efficiency Enhancers, and Innovation and Sophistication has remained central to the methodology used around 2016-17. The sub-indices are aggregates of various specific pillars.

44. Due to which of the following factors, the Industrial Revolution took

Due to which of the following factors, the Industrial Revolution took place in England in the eighteenth century?

The discovery of coal and iron deposits
The discovery of steam power
The introduction of railways
The regular supply of raw materials

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”2, 3 and 4 only” option3=”1 and 3 only” option4=”1, 2, 3 and 4″ correct=”option4″]

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The correct answer is 1, 2, 3 and 4.

The Industrial Revolution in England in the 18th century was a complex phenomenon driven by a confluence of factors.
1. The discovery and exploitation of extensive coal and iron deposits provided the essential fuel (coal) and raw material (iron) for the new machinery and industries.
2. The discovery and improvement of steam power, particularly James Watt’s efficient steam engine, provided a versatile and powerful energy source that could drive machinery, pumps, and later, locomotives and ships.
3. The introduction and expansion of railways (and canals) drastically improved transportation, facilitating the movement of raw materials to factories and finished goods to markets, both domestically and internationally.
4. A regular supply of raw materials, often sourced from colonies (like cotton from India and America) and domestic agriculture (wool), was crucial to feed the growing textile and other industries.
All these factors, along with political stability, capital availability, market access, and technological innovation, contributed significantly to the Industrial Revolution in England.

Other important factors included a growing population providing a labor force and a domestic market, advancements in agriculture (Agricultural Revolution) freeing up labor and increasing food supply, and a strong commercial and financial system.

45. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The Directive P

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The Directive Principles of State Policy are meant for promoting social and economic democracy in India.
2. The Fundamental Rights enshrined in Part III of the Constitution of India are ordinarily subject to reasonable restrictions.
3. Secularism is one of the basic features of Constitution of any country.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”1 and 2 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option3″]

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The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

Statement 1: The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are contained in Part IV of the Constitution. They are fundamental in the governance of the country and aim at establishing a welfare state based on social and economic justice, thereby promoting social and economic democracy. Statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2: Fundamental Rights (FRs) in Part III are enforceable by courts, but they are not absolute. Most Fundamental Rights are subject to reasonable restrictions imposed by the state on grounds specified in the Constitution itself (e.g., public order, morality, security of state, etc.). For example, the freedoms under Article 19 are explicitly subject to reasonable restrictions. Statement 2 is correct.
Statement 3: Secularism is undoubtedly one of the basic features of the Constitution of India, as affirmed by the Supreme Court (Kesavananda Bharati case, S.R. Bommai case, etc.) and explicitly mentioned in the Preamble. However, secularism is not a basic feature of the Constitution of *any* country. Many countries have official state religions or theocratic systems, and their constitutions do not embody secular principles. Statement 3 is incorrect.

DPSP and FRs are often seen as complementary. FRs establish political democracy by imposing limitations on the state, while DPSPs aim for social and economic democracy by guiding the state towards achieving certain goals. The concept of secularism in India is often described as ‘positive secularism’ or ‘sarva dharma sambhava’, implying equal respect and protection for all religions by the state.

46. A Joint Sitting of the Parliament is resorted to, for resolving the de

A Joint Sitting of the Parliament is resorted to, for resolving the deadlock between two Houses of the Parliament for passing which of the following Bills?

1. Money Bill
2. Constitutional Amendment Bill
3. Ordinary Bill

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 and 3 only” option3=”3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option3″]

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The correct answer is 3 only.

A joint sitting of Parliament (Article 108) can be convened by the President to resolve a deadlock between the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha over the passage of an Ordinary Bill.
A Money Bill (Article 110) cannot be subjected to a joint sitting because the Lok Sabha has overriding powers in financial matters, and the Rajya Sabha’s role is largely advisory; it must return a Money Bill within 14 days with or without recommendations. The Lok Sabha can accept or reject these recommendations.
A Constitutional Amendment Bill (Article 368) requires to be passed separately by each House by a special majority (a majority of the total membership of the House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting). There is no provision for a joint sitting to pass a Constitutional Amendment Bill.

Joint sittings are rare and have been held only a few times in the history of the Indian Parliament. The procedure for a joint sitting is laid down in the Rules of Procedure of Parliament, and the Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over such a sitting.

47. Which of the following statements about the 73rd and 74th Constitution

Which of the following statements about the 73rd and 74th Constitution Amendment Act is/are correct?

1. It makes it mandatory for all States to establish a three-tier system of Government.
2. Representatives should be directly elected for five years.
3. There should be mandatory reservation of one-third of all seats in all Panchayats at all levels for women.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”2 and 3 only” option3=”1, 2 and 3″ option4=”3 only” correct=”option2″]

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The correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

Statement 1: The 73rd Amendment Act mandates a three-tier system of Panchayats at the village, intermediate, and district levels. However, it exempts states with a population not exceeding 20 lakhs from having the intermediate level. Therefore, it is not mandatory for *all* states to establish a three-tier system; states with a population below the threshold can opt for a two-tier system. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 2: The 73rd and 74th Amendment Acts provide for direct elections to all seats in Panchayats and Municipalities, respectively, and stipulate a uniform five-year term of office for these bodies. Statement 2 is correct.
Statement 3: Both the 73rd and 74th Amendment Acts mandate the reservation of not less than one-third of the total number of seats for women in every Panchayat/Municipality, including the seats reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. It also mandates reserving one-third of the total number of offices of chairpersons for women at all levels. Statement 3 is correct.

The 73rd Amendment Act added Part IX (“The Panchayats”) to the Constitution and the 74th Amendment Act added Part IXA (“The Municipalities”). These amendments aimed to provide constitutional status to Panchayati Raj and urban local bodies, respectively, and strengthen decentralization.

48. The Fundamental Rights guaranteed in the Constitution of India can be

The Fundamental Rights guaranteed in the Constitution of India can be suspended only by

[amp_mcq option1=”a proclamation of National Emergency” option2=”an Act passed by the Parliament” option3=”an amendment to the Constitution of India” option4=”the judicial decisions of the Supreme Court” correct=”option1″]

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The correct answer is a proclamation of National Emergency.

Under the Constitution of India, the Fundamental Rights can be suspended during the operation of a National Emergency proclaimed under Article 352. Article 359 empowers the President to suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of certain Fundamental Rights (except those guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21) during an emergency. This suspension is done through a Presidential Order, which is issued after the proclamation of emergency.

An Act passed by Parliament can impose reasonable restrictions on certain Fundamental Rights (like those under Article 19), but it cannot ordinarily suspend them entirely. An amendment to the Constitution can alter Fundamental Rights but does not suspend them in the sense of stopping their operation temporarily during an emergency. Judicial decisions interpret and enforce Fundamental Rights, they do not suspend them. The suspension during emergency is a specific executive action authorized by the Constitution.

49. Tincture of iodine is an antiseptic for fresh wounds. It is a dilute s

Tincture of iodine is an antiseptic for fresh wounds. It is a dilute solution of elemental iodine, which does not contain

[amp_mcq option1=”water” option2=”acetone” option3=”alcohol” option4=”potassium iodide” correct=”option2″]

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The correct answer is acetone.

Tincture of iodine is traditionally a solution of elemental iodine (I₂) and an iodide salt (like potassium iodide, KI) dissolved in alcohol (ethanol) and often with some water. The iodide salt helps to increase the solubility of iodine in the solvent. Acetone is a different solvent (a ketone) and is not a standard component of traditional tincture of iodine. While acetone can be used as a solvent in some antiseptic preparations or for cleaning wounds, it is not typically part of the ‘tincture of iodine’ formulation used as an antiseptic.

The elemental iodine is the primary antiseptic agent in tincture of iodine. The alcohol also has antiseptic properties and helps in the penetration of iodine into tissues. Potassium iodide is added to form triiodide ions (I₃⁻), which are more soluble in water and alcohol than diatomic iodine (I₂), thus increasing the concentration of dissolved iodine available for antiseptic action.

50. Which one of the following polymers does not contain glucose units?

Which one of the following polymers does not contain glucose units?

[amp_mcq option1=”Glycogen” option2=”Starch” option3=”Cellulose” option4=”Rubber” correct=”option4″]

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The correct answer is Rubber.

Glycogen, Starch, and Cellulose are all polysaccharides, which are complex carbohydrates. They are polymers made up of repeating units of glucose (a monosaccharide). Glycogen is the storage form of glucose in animals and fungi. Starch is the storage form of glucose in plants. Cellulose is a major structural component of plant cell walls. Natural rubber is a polymer of isoprene (2-methyl-1,3-butadiene), which is an organic compound belonging to the diene class.

While glycogen, starch, and cellulose are polymers of glucose, they differ in the type of glycosidic bonds connecting the glucose units and their branching structures, which gives them different properties and functions. Rubber’s monomer unit is chemically distinct from glucose.