UPSC CDS-2 Archives

31. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, which one of

According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty?

To respect the National Flag

To defend the country

To provide education to one's child

To promote village and cottage industries

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UPSC CDS-2 – 2016

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The correct answer is D, as promoting village and cottage industries is not a fundamental duty.

Article 51A of the Constitution lists the Fundamental Duties. While respecting the National Flag (a), defending the country (d), and providing education to one’s child (k) are explicitly mentioned as fundamental duties, promoting village and cottage industries is listed as a Directive Principle of State Policy under Article 43.

Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee. Originally ten, the 86th Amendment Act, 2002, added the eleventh duty (providing education). Directive Principles of State Policy (Articles 36-51) are guidelines for the state in formulating policies and are not enforceable in court, unlike Fundamental Duties which are also non-enforceable but are expected from citizens.

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32. Which one of the following writs is issued by the Supreme Court to sec

Which one of the following writs is issued by the Supreme Court to secure the freedom of a person upon unlawful arrest?

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Habeas Corpus

Mandamus

Certiorari

Quo Warranto

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The writ issued by the Supreme Court to secure the freedom of a person upon unlawful arrest is Habeas Corpus.

Habeas Corpus is a Latin term meaning “You may have the body”. This writ is issued by a court to a person who has someone in custody, ordering them to bring the detained person before the court to determine if the detention is lawful. It is a crucial remedy against unlawful imprisonment or detention.

Mandamus is a command to a public official to perform a public duty. Certiorari is used to quash an order of a lower court or tribunal. Quo Warranto is used to challenge the legality of a person holding a public office. Only Habeas Corpus directly addresses the issue of unlawful detention and personal liberty.

33. Which one of the following statements is not correct with respect to

Which one of the following statements is not correct with respect to Article 32 of the Constitution of India?

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It provides remedies to citizens for the enforcement of fundamental rights.

It is a part of fundamental rights.

The Supreme Court cannot refuse a writ petition under Article 32 on the ground of delay.

Protection under Article 32 also applies to the enforcement of ordinary law which has nothing to do with the fundamental rights.

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The statement “Protection under Article 32 also applies to the enforcement of ordinary law which has nothing to do with the fundamental rights” is not correct.

Article 32 of the Constitution of India guarantees the right to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Part III of the Constitution. The Supreme Court can issue writs (Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, and Quo Warranto) specifically for this purpose. It cannot be invoked for the enforcement of rights that arise from ordinary laws or for contractual rights unless the violation of such rights also leads to a violation of a fundamental right.

Statements A and B are correct: Article 32 is a fundamental right itself (Part III) and provides remedies for the enforcement of other fundamental rights. Statement C is generally correct in practice, as the Supreme Court is highly reluctant to dismiss petitions under Article 32 on the ground of delay, especially when personal liberty is involved, given its nature as the guardian of fundamental rights.

34. Capital deepening refers to

Capital deepening refers to

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going for more fixed capital per worker

emphasis on social overhead capital

constant capital-output ratio

increasing capital-output ratio

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Capital deepening refers to going for more fixed capital per worker.

Capital deepening is an economic term that describes an increase in the amount of capital goods available per worker. This typically leads to an increase in labour productivity and is a key factor in economic growth.

Fixed capital includes machinery, equipment, buildings, and infrastructure used in production. When the ratio of this capital to the labour force increases, workers have more tools and resources at their disposal, allowing them to produce more output per hour worked. This process is distinct from capital widening, where the capital stock increases proportionally with the labour force, keeping the capital-labour ratio constant.

35. According to the Classical Theory of Employment, deviations from the s

According to the Classical Theory of Employment, deviations from the state of full employment are

purely temporary in nature.

permanent in nature

imaginary situations

normal situations

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According to the Classical Theory of Employment, deviations from the state of full employment are purely temporary in nature.

Classical economics assumes that markets, including the labour market, clear efficiently due to flexible wages and prices. Any unemployment beyond frictional or structural unemployment is considered temporary and is expected to be quickly resolved by the adjustment mechanisms of the market, restoring the economy to full employment.

In the classical model, a decrease in aggregate demand would lead to falling prices and wages, which in turn would stimulate demand (through mechanisms like the Pigou effect or simply making goods cheaper) and restore full employment. Persistent unemployment is explained by factors like minimum wage laws or union power that prevent wages from adjusting downwards, which are considered market imperfections, not inherent flaws in the market mechanism itself.

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36. Which of the following will be the outcome if an economy is under the

Which of the following will be the outcome if an economy is under the inflationary pressure?

1. Domestic currency heads for depreciation.
2. Exports become less competitive with imports getting costlier.
3. Cost of borrowing decreases.
4. Bondholders get benefitted.

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1 and 2

2 and 3

1 and 3 only

1, 3 and 4

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The outcome if an economy is under inflationary pressure will be that domestic currency heads for depreciation and exports become less competitive.

Inflation reduces the purchasing power of a currency. If a country experiences higher inflation relative to its trading partners, its goods become more expensive for foreigners, reducing the competitiveness of exports. This higher domestic price level and reduced export competitiveness often lead to a decrease in demand for the domestic currency on the international market, potentially causing it to depreciate.

Statement 1 is correct because high inflation typically leads to currency depreciation. Statement 2 is correct because inflation makes domestically produced goods more expensive, hurting export competitiveness. Statement 3 is incorrect; inflation generally leads to higher nominal interest rates, increasing the cost of borrowing, though real interest rates might vary. Statement 4 is incorrect; bondholders, who receive fixed nominal payments, are typically harmed by unexpected inflation as the real value of their payments decreases.

37. Which of the following with regard to the term ‘bank run’ is correct?

Which of the following with regard to the term ‘bank run’ is correct?

The net balance of money a bank has in its chest at the end of the day's business

The ratio of bank's total deposits and total liabilities

A panic situation when the deposit holders start withdrawing cash from the banks

The period in which a bank creates highest credit in the market

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A ‘bank run’ is a panic situation when the deposit holders start withdrawing cash from the banks.

A bank run occurs when a large number of customers withdraw their money from a bank simultaneously because they lose confidence in the bank’s solvency and fear they will lose their deposits if the bank fails.

Bank runs can lead to the bank’s collapse, even if it was initially solvent, because banks operate on a fractional reserve system and do not keep all deposits in cash. Such events can trigger financial crises. Deposit insurance and central bank lender-of-last-resort facilities are mechanisms used to prevent bank runs.

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38. The headquarters of ‘Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the P

The headquarters of ‘Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific’ is located at

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Singapore

Manila

Bangkok

Hong Kong

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The headquarters of the Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP) is located at Bangkok.

ESCAP is one of the five regional commissions under the jurisdiction of the United Nations Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC). Its headquarters is situated in Bangkok, Thailand.

ESCAP’s mandate is to foster sustainable and inclusive development in the Asia-Pacific region. It serves as a regional hub for dialogue, knowledge sharing, and capacity building. The other four UN regional commissions are for Europe (ECE), Latin America and the Caribbean (ECLAC), Africa (ECA), and Western Asia (ESCWA).

39. The first Tejas squadron of Indian Air Force consists of

The first Tejas squadron of Indian Air Force consists of

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20 aircrafts with 4 in reserve

100 aircrafts with 10 in reserve

20 aircrafts with no reserve

25 aircrafts with 5 in reserve

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The first Tejas squadron of the Indian Air Force consists of 20 aircrafts with no reserve specifically designated within the squadron’s primary strength count.

The first squadron to be equipped with the LCA Tejas was the No. 45 Squadron, known as the ‘Flying Daggers’. The planned and reported strength for this operational squadron upon full induction was 20 aircraft. While maintenance pools or fleet reserves exist at higher levels, the squadron’s strength itself is typically cited as the number of operational aircraft.

The Tejas Mk 1 aircraft are being inducted in batches. The full complement for the first squadron (45 Sqn) is 20 aircraft. Subsequent orders are for the more advanced Tejas Mk 1A version for additional squadrons, which will also have a similar squadron strength.

40. Which one of the following statements about the Missile Technology Con

Which one of the following statements about the Missile Technology Control Regime is not correct?

The Missile Technology Control Regime is an informal and voluntary partnership initially formed among G-7 countries.

Members of the Missile Technology Control Regime prevent the proliferation of missile and unmanned aerial vehicle technology capable of carrying above 500 kg payload for more than 300 km.

China applied to join the Regime but members did not offer the membership.

No other country outside the membership follows the Regime rules.

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The statement “No other country outside the membership follows the Regime rules” is not correct.

The Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR) is an informal political understanding among member states. While its rules are binding only on members, many non-member countries have enacted national export control laws and regulations that are consistent with MTCR guidelines, demonstrating adherence to its principles even without formal membership.

Statements A, B, and C are correct. The MTCR was established in 1987 by G-7 countries (Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the United Kingdom, and the United States). Its primary goal is to prevent the proliferation of missile and unmanned aerial vehicle systems capable of delivering weapons of mass destruction. Category I items under the MTCR include systems capable of delivering a payload of at least 500 kg to a range of at least 300 km. China is not a member of the MTCR, although it has expressed interest and stated its commitment to abide by some of the regime’s guidelines.

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