UPSC CDS-2

31. Which of the following statements relating to the Fifth Schedule of th

Which of the following statements relating to the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India is not correct ?

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It relates to the special provision for administration of certain areas in the States other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
Tribal advisory councils are to be constituted to give advice under the Fifth Schedule.
The Governor is not authorized to make regulations to prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by or among members of the Scheduled Tribes.
The Governors of the States in which there are scheduled areas have to submit reports to the President regarding the administration of such areas.
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Statement C is not correct.
The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in any State other than the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram (which are covered under the Sixth Schedule). The Governor of a state containing Scheduled Areas has specific powers regarding their administration.
Statement A is correct as it describes the scope of the Fifth Schedule excluding the four northeastern states.
Statement B is correct; the Constitution provides for the constitution of Tribal Advisory Councils in states having Scheduled Areas to advise the Governor on matters pertaining to the welfare and advancement of the Scheduled Tribes.
Statement C is incorrect. Paragraph 5(2)(a) of the Fifth Schedule explicitly authorizes the Governor to make regulations for the peace and good government of any Scheduled Area, and these regulations may include prohibiting or restricting the transfer of land by or among members of the Scheduled Tribes.
Statement D is correct; the Governor of each state having Scheduled Areas is required to submit a report annually, or whenever required, to the President regarding the administration of the Scheduled Areas in that state.

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32. A 100 W electric bulb is used for 10 hours a day. How many units of en

A 100 W electric bulb is used for 10 hours a day. How many units of energy are consumed in 30 days ?

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1
10
30
300
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The correct answer is 30 units.
Energy consumed is calculated as Power × Time. Power is measured in Watts (W) or Kilowatts (kW), and Time is measured in hours (h). Energy is typically measured in Watt-hours (Wh) or Kilowatt-hours (kWh). One unit of electrical energy is equal to 1 kWh.
Given power = 100 W = 0.1 kW (since 1 kW = 1000 W).
The bulb is used for 10 hours a day for 30 days.
Total time = 10 hours/day × 30 days = 300 hours.
Energy consumed = Power (kW) × Total Time (h)
Energy consumed = 0.1 kW × 300 h = 30 kWh.
Since 1 unit = 1 kWh, the energy consumed is 30 units.

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33. An echo is heard after 5 seconds of the production of sound which move

An echo is heard after 5 seconds of the production of sound which moves with a speed of 340 m/s. What is the distance of the mountain from the source of sound which produced the echo ?

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0.085 km
0.85 km
0.17 km
1.7 km
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An echo is produced when sound reflects off a surface and returns to the source. The sound travels from the source to the mountain and then back from the mountain to the source. The total distance covered by the sound in 5 seconds is given by distance = speed × time = 340 m/s × 5 s = 1700 meters. This total distance is twice the distance between the source and the mountain (since the sound goes there and back). Therefore, the distance of the mountain from the source is half of the total distance, which is 1700 m / 2 = 850 meters.
In an echo scenario, the time measured is for the sound’s round trip (source to obstacle and back), so the distance to the obstacle is half the total distance traveled by the sound.
To convert meters to kilometers, divide by 1000. So, 850 meters = 850 / 1000 km = 0.85 km. This matches option B.

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34. A car undergoes a uniform circular motion. The acceleration of the car

A car undergoes a uniform circular motion. The acceleration of the car is

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zero
a non-zero constant
a non-zero but not a constant
None of the above
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In uniform circular motion, the speed of the object (car) is constant, but its direction of motion is continuously changing. Velocity is a vector quantity (magnitude + direction). Since the direction of velocity is changing, the velocity itself is not constant. Acceleration is the rate of change of velocity. Therefore, there is a non-zero acceleration. The acceleration in uniform circular motion is the centripetal acceleration, which is directed towards the center of the circle. Its magnitude (a = v^2/r) is constant because the speed (v) and radius (r) are constant. However, the direction of the acceleration vector is continuously changing as the car moves around the circle. A vector quantity is constant only if both its magnitude and direction are constant. Since the direction changes, the acceleration vector is non-zero but not constant.
Acceleration is a vector quantity. For acceleration to be constant, both its magnitude and direction must be constant.
The acceleration in uniform circular motion is always perpendicular to the velocity vector and points towards the center of the circle. This causes the direction of velocity to change, resulting in circular motion, while the speed remains constant.

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35. Indexation is a method whose use can be associated with which one of t

Indexation is a method whose use can be associated with which one of the following ?

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Controlling inflation
Nominal GDP estimation
Measurement of savings rate
Fixing of wage compensation
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Indexation is a technique used to adjust payments or values to offset the effects of inflation. It is commonly applied to wages and salaries (often through Cost of Living Adjustments – COLA), pensions, social security benefits, and bond yields, among others, to maintain their real purchasing power. Thus, it is directly associated with the fixing or adjustment of wage compensation (and other forms of payment).
Indexation links a monetary payment or value to a price index, such as the Consumer Price Index (CPI), so that it rises automatically as the index rises.
While indexation helps individuals cope with inflation by adjusting their income or payments, it is not a tool for controlling inflation (Option A). Nominal GDP estimation (Option B) is based on current prices, not indexation, although indexation is used to convert nominal GDP to real GDP. Measurement of savings rate (Option C) is a calculation based on income and consumption, not directly related to indexation as a method.

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36. The working of the price mechanism in a free-market economy refers to

The working of the price mechanism in a free-market economy refers to which one of the following ?

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The interplay of the forces of demand and supply
Determination of the inflation rate in the economy
Determination of the economy's propensity to consume
Determination of the economy's full employment output
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In a free-market economy, the price mechanism is the system where the forces of supply and demand determine the prices of goods and services and coordinate the allocation of resources. Prices act as signals, communicating information between buyers and sellers.
The price mechanism is a fundamental concept in microeconomics, explaining how markets tend towards equilibrium without central planning.
The interplay of demand and supply directly leads to price determination. Changes in demand or supply cause prices to adjust, signaling producers to increase or decrease output and consumers to alter their consumption choices. Options B, C, and D describe macroeconomic outcomes or behavioral tendencies that are influenced by, but are not the definition of, the price mechanism itself.

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37. Which one of the following equals Personal Disposable Income ?

Which one of the following equals Personal Disposable Income ?

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Personal Income - Direct taxes paid by households and miscellaneous fees, fines, etc.
Private Income - Saving of Private Corporate Sectors - Corporation Tax
Private Income - Taxes
Total expenditure of Households - Income Tax - Gifts received
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Personal Disposable Income (PDI) is defined as the income available with individuals for consumption or saving. It is calculated by subtracting direct taxes (like income tax, wealth tax) and other compulsory payments (like fees, fines, etc.) paid by households from their Personal Income.
PDI represents the actual spending power of households after meeting their tax obligations to the government.
Personal Income is the total income received by individuals from all sources before paying direct taxes. Private Income includes income accruing to private sector (households and private firms) from all sources. Option B attempts to derive Personal Income from Private Income (Private Income – Savings of Private Corporate Sector – Corporation Tax ≈ Personal Income), but does not define PDI directly. Options C and D are incorrect formulations for PDI.

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38. Which one of the following conditions laid down in the Constitution of

Which one of the following conditions laid down in the Constitution of India for the issue of a writ of Quo-Warranto is not correct ?

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The office must be public and it must be created by a Statute
The office must be a substantive one
There has been a contravention of the Constitution or a Statute in appointing such person to that office
The appointment is in tune with a statutory provision
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A writ of Quo-Warranto is issued to restrain a person from holding a public office to which he is not legally entitled. Therefore, a key condition for issuing this writ is that the appointment must be *illegal* or in contravention of constitutional or statutory provisions. Option D, stating that the appointment is in tune with a statutory provision, is the opposite condition under which Quo-Warranto would be issued.
The purpose of the writ of Quo-Warranto is to prevent usurpation of a public office by an illegal appointment.
The essential conditions for issuing a writ of Quo-Warranto are: 1. The office must be public, substantive, and created by statute or Constitution. 2. The person holding the office must be in actual possession of it. 3. The appointment must be in violation of the Constitution or a statute. Options A, B, and C correctly describe conditions that, if violated by the appointment, could lead to the issuance of the writ.

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39. Who among the following in his book ‘The Managerial Revolution’ argued

Who among the following in his book ‘The Managerial Revolution’ argued that a managerial class dominated all industrial societies, both capitalist and communist, by virtue of its technical and scientific knowledge and its administrative skills ?

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James Burnham
Robert Michels
Gaetano Mosca
Vilfredo Pareto
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James Burnham, in his book ‘The Managerial Revolution: What is Happening in the World’ (1941), argued that in industrial societies, power was shifting from the traditional owners of capital to a new class of managers. He contended that this managerial class, possessing technical and administrative skills, would become the dominant force regardless of whether the system was capitalist or communist.
Burnham’s thesis was influential in the study of social and political structures, suggesting a convergence in the power dynamics of seemingly opposite economic systems due to the rise of managerial expertise.
Robert Michels is known for his “iron law of oligarchy,” Gaetano Mosca for the theory of the ruling class (specifically the “political class”), and Vilfredo Pareto for his elite theory and the concept of the circulation of elites. While all these scholars dealt with elites and power structures, the specific argument about the dominance of a managerial class in both capitalist and communist societies is attributed to James Burnham.

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40. Which one of the following is not enumerated in the Constitution of In

Which one of the following is not enumerated in the Constitution of India as a fundamental duty of citizens of India ?

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To safeguard public property
To protect and improve the natural environment
To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry
To promote international peace and security
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The Fundamental Duties of citizens are enumerated in Article 51A of Part IVA of the Constitution. “To promote international peace and security” is listed in Article 51 under Part IV (Directive Principles of State Policy) as a directive to the State, not as a fundamental duty of citizens.
Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee. There are currently eleven Fundamental Duties.
Options A, B, and C are all listed as Fundamental Duties under Article 51A: A) to safeguard public property and to abjure violence [51A(i)], B) to protect and improve the natural environment [51A(g)], C) to develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform [51A(h)]. Promoting international peace and security [Article 51] is a Directive Principle guiding the State’s foreign policy.

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