UPSC CDS-2 Archives

21. The class of Amar Nayakas in Vijayanagara is a reference to which of t

The class of Amar Nayakas in Vijayanagara is a reference to which of the following?

[amp_mcq option1=”Village Chieftains” option2=”Senior Civil Servants” option3=”Tributary Chiefs” option4=”Military Commanders” correct=”option4″]

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UPSC CDS-2 – 2018

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The correct answer is D) Military Commanders.

The Amar Nayakas were military commanders or chiefs in the Vijayanagara Empire. The ‘Nayaka’ system, also known as the ‘Amara-Nayaka’ system, was a significant administrative and military feature. These commanders were granted territories (amarams) by the king in return for maintaining a stipulated number of troops, elephants, and horses, which they were required to bring to the king’s aid when needed.

While the Amar Nayakas administered their territories, collected taxes, and possessed civil and judicial authority, their primary role and obligation were military. They were not hereditary village chieftains or independent tributary chiefs, nor were they primarily senior civil servants in the central administration, although they held considerable power and influence.

22. Who among the following European travellers never returned to Europe a

Who among the following European travellers never returned to Europe and settled down in India?

[amp_mcq option1=”Duarte Barbosa” option2=”Manucci” option3=”Tavernier” option4=”Bernier” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CDS-2 – 2018

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The correct answer is B) Manucci.

Niccolao Manucci (1639-1717), an Italian adventurer and traveller, came to India around 1656. He served in various capacities, including as a physician, and spent most of his life in India, eventually settling down in the South and dying there. His account, ‘Storia do Mogor’, is a valuable source for the history of the Mughal Empire.

Duarte Barbosa was a Portuguese writer who visited India in the early 16th century. Jean-Baptiste Tavernier was a French gem merchant who made multiple voyages to India in the 17th century. François Bernier was a French physician and philosopher who lived in India for several years in the mid-17th century. All three returned to Europe.

23. Statement I: Agriculture in India still accounts for a substantial sha

Statement I: Agriculture in India still accounts for a substantial share in total employment.
Statement II: There has been no decline in volatility of agricultural growth in India.

[amp_mcq option1=”Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I” option2=”Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I” option3=”Statement I is true but Statement II is false” option4=”Statement I is false but Statement II is true” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CDS-2 – 2018

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Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.

– Statement I is true: Despite structural shifts in the economy and a declining share in GDP, agriculture remains a significant source of employment in India, supporting a large portion of the workforce, particularly in rural areas.
– Statement II is true: Agricultural growth in India continues to be susceptible to external factors, especially monsoon and climate variations, leading to considerable volatility in output and growth rates from year to year. Despite investments in irrigation and technology, complete stability has not been achieved.

– While both statements present true characteristics of Indian agriculture, the volatility of agricultural growth (Statement II) does not explain why it accounts for a substantial share in total employment (Statement I). The high employment share is due to the large size of the rural population, limited alternative non-farm employment opportunities, and historical dependence on the sector.

24. Statement I: Private investments in research have severely lagged publ

Statement I: Private investments in research have severely lagged public investments in India.
Statement II: Universities play a relatively small role in the research activities of the country.

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UPSC CDS-2 – 2018

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Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.

– Statement I is true: Historically and generally, private sector investment in Research and Development (R&D) in India has lagged behind public investment, with government-funded institutions and PSUs accounting for a larger share of national R&D expenditure. While the private sector’s contribution is increasing, public investment traditionally dominated.
– Statement II is true: Compared to many developed countries where universities are major hubs of research and innovation, Indian universities have traditionally played a relatively smaller role in contributing to the overall R&D output and expenditure, with much research concentrated in government labs.

– While both statements accurately describe aspects of the Indian R&D ecosystem, the small role of universities doesn’t directly explain why *private* investment lags *public* investment. Public investment primarily occurs through government research institutions. The lag in private investment is influenced by factors like market size, regulatory environment, availability of skilled personnel, and access to finance for R&D.

25. Statement I: There has been a sharp decline in savings rate in Indian

Statement I: There has been a sharp decline in savings rate in Indian economy between 2007-2008 to 2015-2016.
Statement II: There has been a fall in household and public savings.

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UPSC CDS-2 – 2018

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Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

– Statement I is true: India’s gross domestic savings rate declined from a peak of 36.8% of GDP in 2007-08 to 31.1% in 2015-16. This represents a significant decline.
– Statement II is true: The decline in the overall savings rate was largely driven by a fall in the savings of the household sector (both financial and physical) and the public sector (government and public enterprises) during this period.

– The household sector is the largest contributor to overall domestic savings in India. Public sector savings turned negative in some parts of this period, further contributing to the overall decline. Private corporate sector savings showed resilience but could not offset the decline in other sectors.
– Statement II correctly identifies the components whose decline led to the overall sharp decline in the savings rate mentioned in Statement I, thus acting as a correct explanation.

26. Statement I: The overall fiscal deficit of the States in India during

Statement I: The overall fiscal deficit of the States in India during 2017-2018 stayed above the FRBM threshold level of 3 percent for the third successive year.
Statement II: Special Category States had run up a higher level of fiscal deficit in 2017-2018 compared to 2016-2017.

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UPSC CDS-2 – 2018

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Statement I is false, and Statement II is true.

– Statement I is false: Data shows that the consolidated fiscal deficit of the States in India during 2017-2018 (Revised Estimates) was around 2.8% of GSDP, which was below the FRBM threshold level of 3%. It had been slightly above 3% in some preceding years, but fell back below in 2017-18.
– Statement II is true: Available data for 2017-2018 indicates that Special Category States, facing unique developmental challenges and revenue constraints, did generally run up a higher level of fiscal deficit in 2017-2018 compared to 2016-2017, often exceeding the 3% limit.

– Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Acts at the state level typically target a fiscal deficit limit of 3% of Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP).
– Special Category Status provides certain benefits, including more favorable terms for central assistance, but these states often exhibit higher fiscal stress due to structural factors.

27. With regard to the cabinet decision in July 2018, the percentage incre

With regard to the cabinet decision in July 2018, the percentage increase in Minimum Support Price (MSP) is maximum in which one of the following crops?

[amp_mcq option1=”Jowar (Hybrid)” option2=”Bajra” option3=”Maize” option4=”Soya bean” correct=”option1″]

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UPSC CDS-2 – 2018

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With regard to the cabinet decision in July 2018 on Minimum Support Prices (MSP) for Kharif crops, the percentage increase was maximum in Bajra.

– In July 2018, the Union Cabinet approved the MSP for Kharif crops for the 2018-19 season.
– The MSP for Bajra was increased significantly from ₹1,175 per quintal to ₹1,950 per quintal, a hike of ₹775 (approximately 65.96% increase) which the government then stated was a 97% increase accounting for cost of production (A2+FL cost). Using the simple MSP change percentage, it was still among the highest. Other options had smaller percentage increases.

– The government aimed to ensure that farmers received MSP at least 1.5 times their cost of production, as announced in the budget for 2018-19.
– The MSP increase for Bajra was indeed the highest in percentage terms among the options provided and many other Kharif crops announced at that time.

28. Who among the following is the Convener of the ‘Task Force’ set up in

Who among the following is the Convener of the ‘Task Force’ set up in November 2017 by the Government of India to review the Income-tax Act and draft a new direct tax law?

[amp_mcq option1=”Girish Ahuja” option2=”Mukesh Patel” option3=”Arbind Modi” option4=”Mansi Kedia” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CDS-2 – 2018

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Arbind Modi was the Convener of the Task Force set up in November 2017 by the Government of India to review the Income-tax Act and draft a new direct tax law.

– The Task Force was constituted by the Ministry of Finance, Government of India.
– Arbind Modi was then a Member of the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT).

– The Task Force was mandated to draft a new direct tax law in tune with the economic needs of the country and based on international best practices. It submitted its report in August 2019.
– Girish Ahuja is a known expert on taxation, but was not the convener. Mukesh Patel and Mansi Kedia are not widely associated with this specific task force’s leadership.

29. The acronym ‘CAATSA’ refers to a piece of legislation enacted by which

The acronym ‘CAATSA’ refers to a piece of legislation enacted by which one of the following countries?

[amp_mcq option1=”United Kingdom” option2=”United States of America” option3=”Russia” option4=”India” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CDS-2 – 2018

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The acronym ‘CAATSA’ refers to the Countering America’s Adversaries Through Sanctions Act, a piece of legislation enacted by the United States of America.

– CAATSA was enacted in 2017 by the US Congress.
– It imposes sanctions on Iran, North Korea, and Russia. Section 231 of CAATSA targets individuals and entities that engage in significant transactions with Russia’s defense or intelligence sectors.

– CAATSA has implications for countries, including India, that have significant defence procurement ties with Russia. The acquisition of S-400 missile systems by India from Russia is an example of a transaction potentially subject to CAATSA sanctions, though waivers or exceptions are possible.

30. The policy on strategic partnerships in defence was approved by the Mi

The policy on strategic partnerships in defence was approved by the Ministry of Defence in May 2017. Which of the following is not among the four segments identified by the Ministry for acquisition through the strategic partnership route?

[amp_mcq option1=”Artillery guns” option2=”Fighter aircraft and helicopters” option3=”Submarines” option4=”Armoured fighting vehicles and main battle tanks” correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CDS-2 – 2018

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Artillery guns were not among the four segments identified by the Ministry of Defence in May 2017 for acquisition through the strategic partnership route.

– The strategic partnership policy aimed to build domestic capabilities by selecting private sector players to partner with global Original Equipment Manufacturers (OEMs) for the production of complex defence platforms.
– The four segments identified in the policy were:
1. Submarines
2. Naval Utility Helicopters
3. Fighter Aircraft
4. Armoured Fighting Vehicles/Main Battle Tanks

– The policy intended to provide a level playing field for the private sector and move towards ‘Make in India’ in defence manufacturing for large, complex platforms.
– Artillery guns are procured through various routes, including outright purchase, licensed production, or specific procurement schemes, but were not part of the initial four identified segments under the strategic partnership model.