UPSC CDS-2 Archives

11. The Research Design and Standards Organization is the R&D wing of whic

The Research Design and Standards Organization is the R&D wing of which one of the following organizations ?

Bhabha Atomic Research Centre

Indian Space Research Organization

Indian Railways

Defence Research and Development Organization

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UPSC CDS-2 – 2024

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The Research Designs and Standards Organization (RDSO) is the sole Research and Development (R&D) wing of the Indian Railways. It serves as the technical advisor and consultant to the Railway Board, Zonal Railways, Production Units, and other railway organizations.

RDSO is responsible for standardizing designs, developing technologies, and ensuring the safety and efficiency of the Indian railway system.

Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) is India’s premier nuclear research facility. Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) is responsible for India’s space program. Defence Research and Development Organization (DRDO) is responsible for military research and development.

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12. Which of the following statements about National Recruitment Agency is

Which of the following statements about National Recruitment Agency is correct ?

It is a body to conduct Common Eligibility Test (CET) to shortlist the candidates for vacancies under 'Group B' and 'Group C' of the Government.

Employment in private sector is facilitated in all the districts, particularly 117 aspirational districts.

It was set up in 2014.

It has been accorded Constitutional status in 2021.

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UPSC CDS-2 – 2024

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The National Recruitment Agency (NRA) is established to conduct a Common Eligibility Test (CET) for shortlisting candidates for vacancies under ‘Group B’ (non-gazetted) and ‘Group C’ (non-technical) posts in central government ministries/departments, public sector banks, and railways. Statement A accurately describes this primary function.

The NRA aims to streamline the recruitment process for millions of job aspirants by replacing multiple preliminary exams with a single test (CET).

The Union Cabinet approved the setting up of the NRA in August 2020. It is a registered society under the Societies Registration Act, 1860, making it a statutory body, not a constitutional one. While NRA’s database might be useful for state governments and private sector recruiters, facilitating employment in the private sector is not its direct mandate or function.

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13. Who among the following was not a member of the Drafting Committee of

Who among the following was not a member of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly?

N. G. Ayyangar

K. M. Munshi

B. N. Rau

Muhammad Saadulah

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UPSC CDS-2 – 2017

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B. N. Rau was the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly, not a member of the Drafting Committee.

The Drafting Committee was chaired by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar. Its other members were N. Gopalaswami Ayyangar, Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar, K.M. Munshi, Syed Muhammad Saadullah, B.L. Mitter (later replaced by N. Madhava Rau), and D.P. Khaitan (later replaced by T.T. Krishnamachari).

Sir Benegal Narsing Rau played a crucial role in drafting the initial text of the Constitution based on the reports of various committees, which was then considered and revised by the Drafting Committee.

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14. Article 21 of the Constitution of India includes 1. Rights of transg

Article 21 of the Constitution of India includes

1. Rights of transgenders
2. Rights of craniopagus twins
3. Rights of mentally retarded women to bear a child

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

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1 only

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

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UPSC CDS-2 – 2017

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Statements 1, 2 and 3 are included within the scope of Article 21 of the Constitution of India.

– Article 21 guarantees the Right to Life and Personal Liberty. The Supreme Court has given a very broad and expansive interpretation to this right.
– Statement 1: The Supreme Court in NALSA v. Union of India (2014) held that the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 includes the right to gender identity and personal dignity for transgender persons.
– Statement 2: The right to life under Article 21 includes the right to a dignified life, physical integrity, and access to necessary medical care. Complex medical situations, such as those involving conjoined twins, clearly involve fundamental questions about the right to life and bodily autonomy protected under Article 21.
– Statement 3: The right to personal liberty under Article 21 includes reproductive autonomy and the right to make decisions about one’s body, including the right to bear children. While complex considerations exist for individuals with mental disabilities, their fundamental rights under Article 21, including aspects of reproductive rights, are protected and cannot be arbitrarily denied.

The interpretation of Article 21 by the judiciary has expanded its scope significantly to include various rights considered essential for a dignified human existence, such as the right to health, environment, privacy, education, etc., beyond merely the right to physical existence. The statements reflect this broad judicial interpretation.

15. Consider the following statements about the Scheduled Castes and the S

Consider the following statements about the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes under the provisions of the Constitution of India :

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1. State can make any special provision relating to their admission to the Government educational institutions.
2. State can make any special provision relating to their admission to the private educational institutions aided by the State.
3. State can make any special provision relating to their admission to the private educational institutions not aided by the State.
4. State can make any special provision relating to their admission to the minority educational institutions as described in Article 30.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

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UPSC CDS-2 – 2017

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Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

– Article 15(4) allows the State to make special provisions for the advancement of SC/ST, including reservations in government educational institutions. (Statement 1 is covered).
– Article 15(5), added by the 93rd Amendment (2005), explicitly allows the State to make special provisions for SC/ST (and SEBCs) in relation to their admission to educational institutions, including private educational institutions, *whether aided or unaided by the State*. (Statements 2 and 3 are covered).
– Article 15(5) specifically states that these provisions shall *not apply* to the minority educational institutions referred to in clause (1) of Article 30. (Statement 4 is incorrect).

Article 15(5) was enacted to overcome legal challenges to reservations in private educational institutions and affirmed the state’s power to implement such measures, with the specific exclusion of minority institutions which have special protection under Article 30.

16. The President of India is elected by an Electoral College comprising o

The President of India is elected by an Electoral College comprising of elected members of which of the following?

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1. Both the Houses of the Parliament
2. The Legislative Assemblies of States
3. The Legislative Councils of States
4. The Legislative Assemblies of NCT of Delhi and Puducherry

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 3

1, 2 and 4

3 and 4

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UPSC CDS-2 – 2017

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The Electoral College for the President of India comprises elected members of 1, 2, and 4.

– The Electoral College includes elected members of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha (Both Houses of Parliament).
– It includes the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of all States.
– It includes the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry (since the 70th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992).
– Nominated members of any house and members of State Legislative Councils are NOT part of the Presidential Electoral College.

Article 54 of the Constitution specifies the composition of the Electoral College for the election of the President. The value of votes of MPs and MLAs is calculated based on the population of the states and the total number of elected representatives.

17. Directions : The following five (5) items consist of two statements, S

Directions :
The following five (5) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below.

Statement I :
36. The early Aryans, who were essentially pastoral, did not develop any political structure which could measure up to a State in either ancient or modern sense.
Statement II :
Kingship was the same as tribal chiefship; the term Rajan being used for tribal chief who was primarily a military leader and who ruled over his people and not over any specified area.

Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

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UPSC CDS-2 – 2017

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Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

– Statement I: During the early Vedic period (Rigvedic period), the Aryans were predominantly pastoral and tribal. Their political organization was based on the ‘jana’ (tribe) and lacked the characteristics of a territorial state (e.g., defined territory, complex administration, standing army).
– Statement II: In this period, the ‘Rajan’ was essentially a tribal chief, primarily a military leader responsible for the protection of the tribe (‘jana’). His authority was over the people rather than a specific territory. This structure aligns with tribal chiefship rather than the concept of a state ruling over a fixed land area.

Statement II accurately describes the nature of the political head in the early Vedic period, highlighting his role as a tribal chief over people rather than a ruler of a territory. This characteristic precisely explains why the political structure of the early Aryans did not constitute a ‘State’ in the sense of a territorial and complex administrative entity, thus explaining Statement I.

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18. Directions : The following five (5) items consist of two statements, S

Directions :
The following five (5) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below.

Statement I :
35. The Communists left the All India Trade Union Congress in 1931.
Statement II :
By 1928, the Communists were no longer working with the mainstream national movement.

Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

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UPSC CDS-2 – 2017

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Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

– Statement I: The Communists, who had gained influence in the All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC), split from it in 1929 following ideological differences and formed the Red Trade Union Congress (RTUC). While the initial split was in 1929, by 1931, they were clearly operating as a separate entity outside AITUC.
– Statement II: By the late 1920s, influenced by Comintern directives and their own analysis of the Indian situation, the Communists adopted a more independent and critical stance towards the Indian National Congress and the mainstream national movement, viewing it as bourgeois. This distancing was evident around 1928-1929.

The ideological divergence of the Communists from the Congress-led mainstream national movement (Statement II) directly led to the split within AITUC, an organization where Congress influence was also present, resulting in the Communists forming their own trade union body (Statement I). The split in AITUC was a manifestation of this broader political shift.

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19. Directions : The following five (5) items consist of two statements, S

Directions :
The following five (5) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below.

Statement I :
34. Global warming signifies the rise in global surface temperature.
Statement II :
The increase of concentration of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere causes the rise in global surface temperature.

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Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CDS-2 – 2017

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Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

– Statement I: Global warming refers to the long-term increase in the average temperature of the Earth’s climate system, primarily observed as a rise in global surface temperature since the pre-industrial period.
– Statement II: Greenhouse gases (like carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide, etc.) trap heat (infrared radiation) in the Earth’s atmosphere, creating a warming effect. An increase in the concentration of these gases enhances this trapping, leading to a rise in global surface temperature. This increase is primarily attributed to human activities.

Statement II provides the fundamental mechanism behind the phenomenon described in Statement I. The enhanced greenhouse effect caused by increased greenhouse gas concentrations is the principal driver of current global warming.

20. Directions : The following five (5) items consist of two statements, S

Directions :
The following five (5) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below.

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Statement I :
33. The interior part of Maharashtra does not receive adequate rain in the summer season.
Statement II :
The interior part of Maharashtra lies in the rain shadow of the Western Ghats.

Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

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UPSC CDS-2 – 2017

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Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

– Statement I: The interior parts of Maharashtra (like the Deccan Plateau) receive significantly less rainfall during the South-West Monsoon season compared to the coastal Konkan region. This often leads to drought-prone conditions in the interior.
– Statement II: This phenomenon is caused by the rain shadow effect of the Western Ghats. The Western Ghats lie in the path of the moisture-laden South-West Monsoon winds. The windward side (western slopes and Konkan) receives heavy orographic rainfall. The air descends on the leeward side (eastern slopes and interior plateau), becomes drier, and results in scanty rainfall. The interior of Maharashtra lies on this leeward side.

The rain shadow effect is a well-established geographical phenomenon where a mountain range blocks rain from reaching the land on its leeward side. The Western Ghats are a classic example of mountains creating a rain shadow on the Deccan Plateau.