UPSC CDS-1

21. Who believed that the Russian designs were ‘an imminent peril to the s

Who believed that the Russian designs were ‘an imminent peril to the security and tranquility’ of the Indian Empire in 1836?

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Lord Auckland
Lord Palmerston
Lord Canning
Alexander Burnes
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Lord Auckland, who served as the Governor-General of India from 1836 to 1842, held strong beliefs about the threat posed by Russian expansion towards India.
His tenure was significantly influenced by the fear of Russian designs in Central Asia and Afghanistan, often referred to as the “Great Game,” leading to policies aimed at securing India’s northwestern frontier.
Lord Auckland’s policy of countering perceived Russian influence by interfering in Afghanistan resulted in the disastrous First Anglo-Afghan War (1839-1842). Lord Palmerston was the British Foreign Secretary who also shared concerns about Russian expansion but the direct responsibility for the security of the Indian Empire lay with the Governor-General. Lord Canning was Governor-General during the Mutiny of 1857, much later than 1836. Alexander Burnes was a British explorer and diplomat involved in Afghanistan who reported on Russian activities but was not the policy maker.

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22. The work Siyar-ul-Mutakherin, which describes the Battle of Plassey, 1

The work Siyar-ul-Mutakherin, which describes the Battle of Plassey, 1757, was written by

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Salabat Jung
Qasim Khan
Ghulam Husain
Ram Mohan Roy
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Siyar-ul-Mutakherin is a historical text written by Ghulam Husain Khan Tabatabai.
This work is a significant source for the history of India, covering the period from the decline of the Mughal Empire to the early years of British rule in Bengal, including details of the Battle of Plassey (1757).
Ghulam Husain Khan Tabatabai was a nobleman and historian. The Siyar-ul-Mutakherin provides an Indian perspective on the events leading up to and following the Battle of Plassey, offering valuable insights into the political and social conditions of the time.

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23. From which one of the following factory sites were limestone and chert

From which one of the following factory sites were limestone and chert blades mass produced and sent to various Harappan settlements in Sindh?

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Sukkur and Rohri Hills
Khetri in Rajasthan
Chagai Hills
Hills of Baluchistan
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The Sukkur and Rohri Hills region in Sindh is well-known as a major source of high-quality chert used for mass-producing blades during the Harappan period.
This region provided the raw material (chert) that was then processed into blades on a large scale and supplied to various Harappan settlements in the Indus Valley, highlighting organized resource exploitation and distribution networks.
Khetri in Rajasthan is known for its copper mines exploited by Harappans. While Harappan sites existed in Baluchistan and near Chagai Hills, Sukkur and Rohri Hills are specifically famous for large-scale chert blade production supplying sites in Sindh.

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24. Consider the following statements about Stone Age in India : 1. Diff

Consider the following statements about Stone Age in India :

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  • 1. Different periods are identified on the basis of the type and technology of stone tools.
  • 2. There are no regional variations in the type and technology of tools in different periods.
  • 3. Stone Age cultures of different periods evolved uniformly in a neat unilinear fashion all over the subcontinent.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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1 only
1 and 2 only
3 only
1, 2 and 3
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Statement 1 is correct because different periods of the Stone Age (Palaeolithic, Mesolithic, Neolithic) are primarily distinguished by the type and technology of the stone tools used.
The classification and understanding of the Stone Age in India, as elsewhere, heavily rely on the changes observed in stone tool assemblages over time.
Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect. Stone Age cultures in India exhibited significant regional variations in tool types, technology, and cultural practices due to diverse geographical and environmental conditions. The evolution was not uniformly unilinear across the entire subcontinent; different regions developed at different paces and in distinct ways.

25. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India prote

Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India protects a person against double jeopardy?

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Article 20
Article 21
Article 22
Article 23
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Article 20(2) of the Constitution of India provides protection against double jeopardy.
Double jeopardy means that a person cannot be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.
Article 20 provides three types of protection: (1) No ex-post-facto law (Article 20(1)), (2) No double jeopardy (Article 20(2)), and (3) No self-incrimination (Article 20(3)). Article 21 protects life and personal liberty. Article 22 provides protection against arrest and detention. Article 23 prohibits traffic in human beings and forced labour.

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26. Which one of the following was added as a fundamental duty through the

Which one of the following was added as a fundamental duty through the Constitution (86th Amendment) Act, 2002?

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To strive towards excellence in individual and collective activity
To provide opportunities for education to one's child between the age of 6 and 14 years
To work for the welfare of women and children
To promote peace and harmony
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The correct answer is B) To provide opportunities for education to one’s child between the age of 6 and 14 years.
The Constitution (86th Amendment) Act, 2002 introduced several changes related to education. It inserted Article 21A, making the right to education a Fundamental Right for children aged 6 to 14 years. It also amended Article 45 (Directive Principles of State Policy) and added a new Fundamental Duty under Article 51A. The new fundamental duty added as clause (k) under Article 51A is: “who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years.” This directly corresponds to option B.
Prior to the 86th Amendment, Article 51A listed ten fundamental duties. The 86th Amendment increased the number of fundamental duties to eleven. Other fundamental duties include respecting the Constitution, cherishing noble ideals, promoting harmony, protecting the environment, etc. Option A is part of the original list (51A(j)). Options C and D reflect general societal goals but are not specific fundamental duties listed under Article 51A.

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27. Which of the following are considered to be the four pillars of human

Which of the following are considered to be the four pillars of human development?

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Equity, inclusion, productivity and empowerment
Equity, productivity and sustainability
Productivity, gender, inclusion and equity
Labour, productivity, inclusion and equity
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The correct answer is A) Equity, inclusion, productivity and empowerment.
While the four universally recognized pillars of human development as defined by UNDP are typically Equity, Sustainability, Productivity, and Empowerment, options provided in examinations can sometimes use slightly different terminology or emphasis. Option A lists Equity, Productivity, and Empowerment, which are three of the core pillars. It replaces Sustainability with Inclusion. In many contemporary discussions of human development and social policy, inclusion is considered a critical aspect, closely linked to achieving equity and enabling empowerment for all segments of society. Given the options, option A presents a set of four concepts that are all considered fundamental to human development, even if ‘Inclusion’ is sometimes discussed as a dimension rather than a stand-alone pillar in foundational texts compared to Sustainability. The other options either miss more fundamental pillars (like Empowerment in B) or include terms not typically classified as core “pillars” (like ‘gender’ or ‘labour’ in C and D).
Equity refers to fairness in opportunity, ensuring everyone has access to resources and opportunities. Productivity relates to people being able to contribute to development and utilize their capabilities. Empowerment is about people having the freedom to make choices and shape their lives. Sustainability is about ensuring development meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. Inclusion is about ensuring all individuals and groups participate in and benefit from development processes.

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28. Which one of the following is not a feature of the Ayushman Bharat

Which one of the following is not a feature of the Ayushman Bharat Scheme?

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There is no cap on family size and age.
The scheme includes pre- and post-hospitalization expenses.
A defined transport allowance per hospitalization will also be paid to the beneficiary.
The scheme provides a benefit cover of ₹ 10 lakh per family.
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The correct answer is D) The scheme provides a benefit cover of ₹ 10 lakh per family.
The Ayushman Bharat Scheme, particularly its component Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY), provides health insurance cover.
A) There is no cap on family size and age: Correct. Eligibility is based on deprivation criteria for rural areas and occupational categories for urban areas, and once eligible, there are no restrictions on family size or age.
B) The scheme includes pre- and post-hospitalization expenses: Correct. The scheme covers medical expenses for a specified number of days prior to hospitalization and a specified number of days after discharge.
C) A defined transport allowance per hospitalization will also be paid to the beneficiary: Correct. The scheme includes provisions for transport allowance to beneficiaries.
D) The scheme provides a benefit cover of ₹ 10 lakh per family: Incorrect. The scheme provides a benefit cover of ₹ 5 lakh per family per year for secondary and tertiary care hospitalization.
Ayushman Bharat is the world’s largest health assurance scheme. It aims to provide health coverage to over 10.74 crore poor and vulnerable families (approximately 50 crore beneficiaries). It also has a component focused on establishing Health and Wellness Centres (HWCs) for primary healthcare.

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29. Overseas Indians can exercise franchise in an election to the Lok Sabh

Overseas Indians can exercise franchise in an election to the Lok Sabha under which of the following conditions?

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  • 1. They must be citizens of India.
  • 2. Their names must figure in the electoral roll.
  • 3. They must be present in India to vote.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1, 2 and 3
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
1 only
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The correct answer is A) 1, 2 and 3.
Overseas Indians (NRIs) who are citizens of India are eligible to vote. For an NRI to exercise franchise in an election to the Lok Sabha, the following conditions must be met under the current legal framework for physical voting:
1. They must be citizens of India. (Correct)
2. Their names must be registered and figure in the electoral roll of the constituency in India where they would have been ordinarily resident if they were living in India. (Correct)
3. They must be physically present in their registered constituency in India on the day of polling to cast their vote. (Correct – As per existing law requiring physical presence for casting the vote. While registration might not require presence, exercising the franchise (voting) historically required physical presence).
Therefore, all three conditions are necessary for an Overseas Indian to vote in a Lok Sabha election under the traditional system.
Amendments were made to the Representation of the People Act in 2010 to allow NRIs to register as voters. There have been ongoing discussions and proposals for alternative voting methods like proxy voting or e-postal ballots for NRIs to facilitate their participation without requiring physical presence, but these have not been fully implemented for all NRI voters as of now. Based on the requirement to physically cast the vote, all three conditions are necessary.

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30. Which one of the following soils is characterized by very high content

Which one of the following soils is characterized by very high content of organic matter?

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Vertisol
Histosol
Gelisol
Spodosol
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The correct answer is B) Histosol.
Soil taxonomy classifies soils based on their properties. Histosols are a soil order characterized by a very high content of organic matter, typically formed in saturated or anaerobic conditions like wetlands, bogs, and swamps where the decomposition of organic material is slow. Vertisols are clayey soils that shrink and swell significantly with changes in moisture content. Gelisols are soils of very cold climates that contain permafrost within 100 cm of the surface or exhibit evidence of cryoturbation. Spodosols are acidic soils common in coniferous or mixed forests, characterized by the accumulation of organic matter, aluminum, and/or iron in subsurface horizons, but they are not primarily composed of organic matter like Histosols.
Histosols are also known by common names such as peats and mucks. They are very fertile when drained, but drainage can lead to subsidence and oxidation of the organic matter, releasing carbon dioxide.

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