UPSC CBI DSP LDCE

31. Which one of the following is not a ‘cold ocean current’?

Which one of the following is not a ‘cold ocean current’?

[amp_mcq option1=”Benguela Current” option2=”Canary Current” option3=”Falkland Current” option4=”Kuroshio Current” correct=”option4″]

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The Kuroshio Current is a warm ocean current, unlike the other options which are cold currents.
Ocean currents are classified as warm or cold based on whether they carry water from warmer regions to colder regions (warm currents) or from colder regions to warmer regions (cold currents). The Benguela Current flows northwards along the west coast of southern Africa, originating from the Southern Ocean (cold). The Canary Current flows southwards along the northwestern coast of Africa, originating from the North Atlantic (cold). The Falkland Current flows northwards along the coast of Argentina, originating from the Southern Ocean (cold). The Kuroshio Current flows northeastwards from the east coast of Taiwan towards Japan and beyond, originating from the tropics (warm).
Warm currents typically flow towards the poles along the eastern coasts of continents (except in high latitudes), while cold currents typically flow towards the equator along the western coasts of continents (except in high latitudes). These currents play a crucial role in regulating global climate and influencing marine ecosystems.

32. Which one of the following is not a basic factor in soil formation?

Which one of the following is not a basic factor in soil formation?

[amp_mcq option1=”Climate” option2=”Biological activity” option3=”Human activity (agriculture)” option4=”Time” correct=”option3″]

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Human activity (agriculture) is generally considered an important factor influencing soil properties and development, but not one of the five fundamental *basic* factors of soil formation.
The five generally accepted basic factors of soil formation, often remembered by the acronym CLORPT, are: CLimate, Organisms (biological activity), Relief (topography), Parent material, and Time. While human activities like agriculture significantly modify soil, they are typically categorized as external influences or pedoturbation rather than inherent basic factors that initiate or fundamentally govern soil development from parent material.
Other human activities that impact soil include deforestation, urbanization, pollution, and irrigation. These activities can accelerate or retard soil processes, alter soil structure, composition, and fertility, but they operate upon the soil-forming processes governed by the basic factors.

33. Consider the following statements with respect to the ‘asthenosphere’

Consider the following statements with respect to the ‘asthenosphere’ :

  • 1. It extends from the lower crust to the upper mantle.
  • 2. It is the main source of the magma that finds its way to the surface of the Earth during volcanic eruptions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option2″]

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Statement 2 correctly identifies the asthenosphere as a major source of magma, while Statement 1 inaccurately describes its location.
The asthenosphere is the highly viscous, mechanically weak and ductile region of the upper mantle, below the lithosphere. It extends roughly from about 100 km to 400 km depth. Statement 1 is incorrect because the asthenosphere is entirely within the upper mantle and does not extend into the lower crust. Statement 2 is correct because partial melting occurs within the asthenosphere due to its temperature and pressure conditions, generating magma that contributes to volcanic activity.
The lithosphere, which comprises the rigid crust and uppermost part of the mantle, floats on the ductile asthenosphere. The movement of tectonic plates (parts of the lithosphere) is facilitated by the plastic flow within the asthenosphere.

34. Which one among the following is not a function of the National Commis

Which one among the following is not a function of the National Commission for Women in India?

[amp_mcq option1=”To investigate and to examine matters related to safeguards provided for women under the Constitution of India and laws” option2=”To fund litigation involving issues affecting a large body of women” option3=”To provide gainful employment to women especially from the weaker sections of the society” option4=”To participate and advise on the planning process of socio-economic development of women” correct=”option3″]

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The correct answer is C.
– The National Commission for Women (NCW) is a statutory body in India that works to protect and promote the interests of women.
– Option A is a key function: The NCW investigates and examines matters relating to the safeguards provided for women under the Constitution and other laws.
– Option B is a function/activity: The NCW can support or fund litigation involving issues affecting a significant number of women or having policy implications.
– Option D is a function: The NCW participates and advises on the planning process of socio-economic development of women.
– Option C, “To provide gainful employment to women especially from the weaker sections of the society,” is NOT a primary function of the NCW. Providing employment is typically the responsibility of government ministries and departments running specific employment and livelihood schemes, or skill development programs. The NCW’s role is advisory, investigative, and recommendatory regarding women’s rights and legal safeguards, not direct implementation of employment generation programs.
The NCW plays a crucial role in advocating for policy changes, handling complaints of violation of women’s rights, and recommending measures to ensure gender equality.

35. The provision for one-third representation for women in the local self

The provision for one-third representation for women in the local self-government has been introduced in the Constitution of India through

[amp_mcq option1=”42nd Amendment Act” option2=”63rd Amendment Act” option3=”73rd Amendment Act” option4=”75th Amendment Act” correct=”option3″]

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The correct answer is C.
– The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts of 1992 provided constitutional status to Panchayats (rural local bodies) and Municipalities (urban local bodies) respectively.
– The 73rd Amendment Act, through Article 243D, mandated the reservation of not less than one-third of the total number of seats to be filled by direct election in every Panchayat for women. Similar reservation (including for the office of chairperson) was provided.
– The 74th Amendment Act, through Article 243T, made similar provisions for reservation of seats for women in Municipalities.
– Since the question refers to “local self-government”, which encompasses both rural and urban local bodies, and the 73rd Amendment primarily established the constitutional framework for rural local self-government with this key provision, it is the most appropriate answer. Both amendments came into effect in 1993.
These amendments were landmark steps towards empowering women and decentralizing power in India. Many states have further increased the reservation for women in local bodies to 50%.

36. Which of the following statements about the Virasaiva Movement is/are

Which of the following statements about the Virasaiva Movement is/are correct?

  • 1. Virasaiva followers are also known as Lingayats.
  • 2. The Movement is closely associated with Basaveshwara.
  • 3. The Movement became institution-alized over a period of time.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

[amp_mcq option1=”1, 2 and 3 only” option2=”2 and 3 only” option3=”1 and 2 only” option4=”3 only” correct=”option1″]

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The correct answer is A, meaning all three statements are correct.
– Statement 1 is correct. The followers of the Virasaiva Movement are commonly known as Lingayats, referring to their practice of wearing a small Linga (Ishtalinga) on their person.
– Statement 2 is correct. The Virasaiva Movement, which emerged in the 12th century in South India, is strongly associated with Basaveshwara (Basavanna), a philosopher, statesman, and social reformer who championed radical social reforms, including challenging caste distinctions and patriarchal norms.
– Statement 3 is correct. Over time, the Virasaiva Movement developed into an established religious and social tradition with its own organizational structures, such as mathas (monasteries), significant body of literature (Vachanas), and philosophical schools, thus becoming institutionalized.
The Virasaiva tradition emphasizes monotheism (worship of Shiva), equality, and devotion (bhakti). It played a significant role in the social and religious landscape of the Deccan region.

37. Who wrote the feminist text Stree-Purush Tulana ?

Who wrote the feminist text Stree-Purush Tulana ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Pandita Ramabai” option2=”Rukhmabai” option3=”Rokeya Sakhawat Hossain” option4=”Tarabai Shinde” correct=”option4″]

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The correct answer is D.
– The feminist text “Stree-Purush Tulana” (A Comparison Between Women and Men) was written by Tarabai Shinde in 1882 and published in 1885.
– It is considered one of the earliest modern feminist texts in India, critiquing patriarchal double standards and the subjugation of women.
Pandita Ramabai was another contemporary social reformer and feminist, known for establishing institutions like the Arya Mahila Samaj and Sharada Sadan. Rukhmabai was notable for her legal battle against child marriage and later became one of India’s first women doctors. Rokeya Sakhawat Hossain was a pioneering Bengali feminist, writer, and educator who founded schools for girls and wrote influential works like “Sultana’s Dream”.

38. Which of the following pairs of tribal movements and their leaders are

Which of the following pairs of tribal movements and their leaders are correctly matched?

1. Rampa Rebellion : Alluri Sitarama Raju
2. Naga Movement : Haipou Jadonang
3. Heraka Movement : Rani Gaidinliu
4. Santhal Rebellion : Sidhu Murmu and Kanhu Murmu

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

[amp_mcq option1=”1, 2 and 3 only” option2=”2, 3 and 4 only” option3=”1, 2, 3 and 4″ option4=”1 and 4 only” correct=”option3″]

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The correct answer is C, meaning all four pairs are correctly matched.
– Pair 1: The Rampa Rebellion (also known as the Manyam Rebellion) of 1922-24 in the Godavari Agency was led by Alluri Sitarama Raju. This is correctly matched.
– Pair 2: Haipou Jadonang was a Naga spiritual leader and freedom fighter who led a movement against British rule in the early 1930s in Manipur and surrounding areas. This is correctly matched with the Naga Movement.
– Pair 3: The Heraka Movement was a religious reform movement that originated among the Zeliangrong Nagas. It was started by Haipou Jadonang and later led and popularized by Rani Gaidinliu, who continued the anti-British struggle associated with the movement. This is correctly matched.
– Pair 4: The Santhal Rebellion (Santhal Hul) of 1855-56 was a major tribal uprising against the British and their collaborators. It was led by four Murmu brothers: Sidhu, Kanhu, Chand, and Bhairav. Sidhu Murmu and Kanhu Murmu were the principal leaders. This is correctly matched.
These tribal movements represent significant instances of resistance against colonial rule and exploitative systems in different parts of India. The leaders often combined socio-religious reform with political struggle.

39. Which of the following statements about revenue and primary deficit is

Which of the following statements about revenue and primary deficit is/are correct?

  • 1. Revenue deficit refers to the excess of revenue expenditure over revenue receipts.
  • 2. Primary deficit is measured as fiscal deficit less interest payments.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option3″]

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The correct answer is C, meaning both statements are correct.
– Statement 1 is correct. Revenue deficit is defined as the excess of the government’s total revenue expenditure over its total revenue receipts. It indicates the government’s dissaving on its current account.
– Statement 2 is correct. Primary deficit is defined as the fiscal deficit minus interest payments on past borrowings. It indicates the government’s borrowing requirement excluding the interest burden from previous debts, showing the deficit for current year’s expenditure (excluding interest).
Fiscal deficit is the difference between the government’s total expenditure and its total receipts (excluding borrowing). A primary deficit of zero indicates that the government is borrowing only to pay interest on previous debts. A positive primary deficit means the government is borrowing even to meet current expenditure requirements beyond interest payments.

40. According to the Budget Estimates of 2023-24, which one among the foll

According to the Budget Estimates of 2023-24, which one among the following sectors received the highest allocation of funds?

[amp_mcq option1=”Railways” option2=”Rural Development” option3=”Education” option4=”Defence” correct=”option4″]

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The correct answer is D.
– According to the Union Budget Estimates for 2023-24, the Ministry of Defence received the highest allocation among all ministries, with a total allocation of ₹5.94 lakh crore.
– Comparing the allocations for the given options:
– Railways (Ministry of Railways): ₹2.41 lakh crore
– Rural Development (Ministry of Rural Development): ₹1.60 lakh crore
– Education (Ministry of Education): ₹1.13 lakh crore
– Defence (Ministry of Defence): ₹5.94 lakh crore
– Defence clearly received the highest allocation among these options.
The defence budget includes allocations for defence pensions, which is a significant component. Even excluding pensions, the allocation for defence services capital and revenue expenditure is substantial. Other ministries like Road Transport and Highways also received significant allocations, but among the options provided, Defence was the highest.
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