UPSC CBI DSP LDCE Archives

21. The Sarkaria Commission, set up in 1983, is related to which one of th

The Sarkaria Commission, set up in 1983, is related to which one of the following?

[amp_mcq option1=”Metropolitan planning” option2=”Centre-State relationship” option3=”Parliamentary committees” option4=”Reforms in bureaucracy” correct=”option2″]

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The Sarkaria Commission, headed by Justice R.S. Sarkaria, was appointed by the Central government in 1983 to examine the centre-state relationship in India. Its mandate was to review the existing arrangements between the Union and States in all spheres and recommend appropriate changes and measures.

The Sarkaria Commission’s primary focus was on the relationship between the Central government and the State governments in India.

The Commission submitted its report in 1987. It made 247 recommendations to improve centre-state relations. While it did not suggest a major structural change, it recommended strengthening the existing institutions and mechanisms for better coordination, such as the Inter-State Council. Many of its recommendations have been implemented over time.

22. Which one of the following Indian States was admitted as an ‘Associate

Which one of the following Indian States was admitted as an ‘Associate State’ to the Union of India in 1974?

[amp_mcq option1=”Meghalaya” option2=”Manipur” option3=”Mizoram” option4=”Sikkim” correct=”option4″]

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Sikkim was admitted as an ‘Associate State’ to the Union of India in 1974 by the 35th Constitutional Amendment Act. This Act added Article 2A and the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution, giving Sikkim a unique status different from other states.

The 35th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1974 granted ‘Associate State’ status to Sikkim.

The status of ‘Associate State’ was temporary. Following a referendum in Sikkim, the 36th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1975 was passed, which repealed Article 2A and the Tenth Schedule and made Sikkim a full-fledged state of the Indian Union, adding it as the 22nd state.

23. Which of the following statements about a State under the President’s

Which of the following statements about a State under the President’s rule is/are correct?

1. The budget of a State under the President’s rule is approved by the Governor of the State.
2. The procedure to pass the budget of a State under the President’s rule is same as that of the budget of the Union Government.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option2″]

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Statement 1 is incorrect because when a State is under President’s rule, the functions of the State Legislature, including the approval of the budget, are exercised by or under the authority of the Parliament. The Governor acts as the representative of the President, but the budgetary approval is done by the Union Parliament. Statement 2 is correct as the procedure followed by the Parliament in approving the State’s budget under President’s rule is the same as that followed for the Union budget.

Under President’s rule (Article 356), the legislative power of the State is exercised by or under the authority of Parliament (Article 357). This includes passing the State’s budget.

Article 357(1)(b) of the Constitution specifically allows Parliament to confer on the President the power of the State Legislature to make laws, or to authorize any other authority to exercise such power. This includes the power to pass the state budget. The procedure for passing the state budget in Parliament mirrors that of the Union budget, typically involving presentation, general discussion, scrutiny by departmental standing committees (though this may vary depending on the specific context), voting on demands for grants, and passing of appropriation bill and finance bill.

24. The Supreme Court of India exercises advisory jurisdiction under which

The Supreme Court of India exercises advisory jurisdiction under which Article of the Constitution of India?

[amp_mcq option1=”Article 141″ option2=”Article 142″ option3=”Article 143″ option4=”Article 144″ correct=”option3″]

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The Supreme Court of India has various jurisdictions. Its advisory jurisdiction is derived from Article 143 of the Constitution. This article empowers the President of India to refer to the Supreme Court questions of law or fact that have arisen or are likely to arise and are of such a nature and of such public importance that it is expedient to obtain the opinion of the Supreme Court upon it. The Supreme Court may, after such hearing as it thinks fit, report to the President its opinion thereon.

Article 143 of the Constitution grants the Supreme Court advisory jurisdiction, allowing the President to seek its opinion on questions of law or fact of public importance.

The opinion given by the Supreme Court under Article 143 is advisory and not a judicial pronouncement binding on lower courts. The President is also not bound to act upon this opinion.
Article 141 states that the law declared by the Supreme Court is binding on all courts within the territory of India.
Article 142 deals with the power of the Supreme Court to pass decrees and orders for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it.
Article 144 mandates that all civil and judicial authorities in the territory of India shall act in aid of the Supreme Court.

25. What is the term of office of the members of the Public Accounts Commi

What is the term of office of the members of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament?

[amp_mcq option1=”One year” option2=”Three years” option3=”Five years” option4=”Six years” correct=”option1″]

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The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is a parliamentary committee that examines the annual audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India, which are laid before the Parliament. The committee consists of 22 members: 15 elected by Lok Sabha and 7 elected by Rajya Sabha. The members are elected annually from amongst their respective members according to the principle of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote. The term of office of the members of the Public Accounts Committee is one year.

The term of office for the members of the Public Accounts Committee is one year.

The chairman of the Public Accounts Committee is appointed by the Speaker of Lok Sabha. By tradition, the chairman of the committee is from the opposition party.

26. Which one of the following statements about the Estimates Committee of

Which one of the following statements about the Estimates Committee of the Parliament is not correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”The term of office of the Committee is five years.” option2=”The Committee suggests alternative policies.” option3=”The Committee examines Money Bill.” option4=”The Committee suggests the form in which estimates shall be presented to the Parliament.” correct=”option1″]

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Let’s examine each statement about the Estimates Committee:
A) The term of office of the Committee is five years. This is incorrect. The term of office of the members of the Estimates Committee, like other financial committees such as the Public Accounts Committee and Committee on Public Undertakings, is one year.
B) The Committee suggests alternative policies. This is correct. The Committee suggests alternative policies in the interest of economy and efficiency.
C) The Committee examines Money Bill. This is incorrect. The Estimates Committee examines the estimates presented to Parliament as part of the budget. It scrutinises the economy in incurring expenditure *within the policy approved by Parliament*. It does not examine the Money Bill itself, which is a legislative instrument.
D) The Committee suggests the form in which estimates shall be presented to the Parliament. This is correct. One of its functions is to suggest the form in which the estimates are to be presented to Parliament.
The question asks for the statement that is *not* correct. Both A and C are incorrect. However, standard UPSC practice usually intends one single incorrect statement as the answer. The term length (A) being 5 years instead of 1 year is a clear and fundamental factual error about the committee’s structure. Statement C is also incorrect regarding the committee’s function/scope. Given the options and common knowledge about parliamentary committees, the term length error (A) is a highly probable intended answer for an “incorrect statement” question.

The term of office for the Estimates Committee members is one year, not five years. The committee examines expenditure estimates, not the Money Bill.

The Estimates Committee consists of 30 members, all from Lok Sabha, elected annually. It is the largest parliamentary committee. It scrutinizes the budget estimates *before* they are voted upon but its recommendations are generally advisory and not binding on the Parliament or the government.

27. When a Member of the Parliament desires an oral answer from a Ministry

When a Member of the Parliament desires an oral answer from a Ministry, which one of the following types of questions will be suitable?

[amp_mcq option1=”Unstarred question” option2=”Starred question” option3=”Short notice question” option4=”Question to a private member” correct=”option2″]

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In parliamentary proceedings, questions are classified based on how they are answered.
A) Unstarred question: Requires a written answer from the minister. No supplementary questions can be asked.
B) Starred question: Requires an oral answer from the minister. Supplementary questions can be asked by the members after the answer is given. Starred questions are marked with an asterisk (*) on the question list.
C) Short notice question: Relates to a matter of urgent public importance and can be asked with a notice shorter than 10 days with the permission of the Speaker/Chairman. It is answered orally.
D) Question to a private member: Addressed to an MP who is not a minister, concerning a bill, resolution, or other matter related to the business of the House for which that member is responsible. It is answered orally.
The question asks for a question that requires an *oral answer* and allows for follow-up questions (implied by the oral nature and parliamentary procedure). Starred questions are the primary type of question for seeking oral answers followed by supplementary questions. While short notice questions are also answered orally, they are for urgent matters and require Speaker’s permission. The standard format for desiring an oral answer from a Ministry with the possibility of supplementaries is a Starred Question.

Starred questions are distinguished by requiring an oral answer from the minister and allowing supplementary questions.

Question Hour is the first hour of every parliamentary sitting, reserved for asking and answering questions. The list of questions is categorised into Starred, Unstarred, and Short Notice questions.

28. Who among the following served as the President of India for the short

Who among the following served as the President of India for the shortest period of time?

[amp_mcq option1=”Giani Zail Singh” option2=”Pratibha Patil” option3=”Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan” option4=”Zakir Husain” correct=”option4″]

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Let’s look at the tenures of the mentioned Presidents:
A) Giani Zail Singh: 1982-1987 (5 years)
B) Pratibha Patil: 2007-2012 (5 years)
C) Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan: 1962-1967 (5 years)
D) Zakir Husain: 1967-1969 (Died in office after serving for approximately 2 years and 3 months).
Among the given options, Dr. Zakir Husain served for the shortest period. He was the first President of India to die in office.

Dr. Zakir Husain’s tenure was cut short due to his death in office. His tenure was significantly shorter than the full 5-year term served by the others listed.

India’s Presidents typically serve a full term of five years unless they resign or pass away during their term. V.V. Giri served as Acting President after Zakir Husain’s death and was later elected President.

29. Under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India

Under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India is the right to property a constitutional right?

[amp_mcq option1=”Article 41″ option2=”Article 300A” option3=”Article 19″ option4=”Article 38″ correct=”option2″]

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Initially, the right to property was a fundamental right under Article 19(1)(f) (freedom to acquire, hold, and dispose of property) and Article 31 (compulsory acquisition of property). The 44th Amendment Act, 1978, repealed Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31 from the list of fundamental rights. It inserted Article 300A in Part XII of the Constitution, which states that “no person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law.” This made the right to property a constitutional right (or a legal right), but not a fundamental right.

The 44th Amendment Act, 1978, changed the status of the right to property from a fundamental right to a constitutional/legal right.

Article 41 is a Directive Principle of State Policy related to the right to work, education, and public assistance. Article 19 lists the fundamental rights regarding freedom (such as speech, assembly, etc.), which originally included property but no longer does. Article 38 is a Directive Principle related to the State securing a social order for the promotion of the welfare of the people.

30. Aneesh borrowed some money at the rate of 5% per annum for the first 3

Aneesh borrowed some money at the rate of 5% per annum for the first 3 years, 8% per annum for the next 7 years and 12% per annum for the period beyond 10 years. If the total interest paid by him at the end of 13 years is ₹ 5,350, how much money did Aneesh borrow, if the interest is charged as simple interest?

[amp_mcq option1=”₹ 5,000″ option2=”₹ 5,500″ option3=”₹ 5,100″ option4=”₹ 5,800″ correct=”option1″]

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Let the principal amount borrowed be P. The total time period is 13 years. The simple interest rate changes over periods:
Period 1: Rate (R1) = 5% p.a., Time (T1) = 3 years.
Simple Interest for Period 1 (SI1) = (P * R1 * T1) / 100 = (P * 5 * 3) / 100 = 15P / 100.
Period 2: Rate (R2) = 8% p.a., Time (T2) = next 7 years. Total time elapsed = 3 + 7 = 10 years.
Simple Interest for Period 2 (SI2) = (P * R2 * T2) / 100 = (P * 8 * 7) / 100 = 56P / 100.
Period 3: Rate (R3) = 12% p.a., Time (T3) = period beyond 10 years until 13 years. T3 = 13 – 10 = 3 years.
Simple Interest for Period 3 (SI3) = (P * R3 * T3) / 100 = (P * 12 * 3) / 100 = 36P / 100.
The total interest paid is the sum of simple interests for each period.
Total SI = SI1 + SI2 + SI3 = (15P / 100) + (56P / 100) + (36P / 100) = (15P + 56P + 36P) / 100 = 107P / 100.
Given that the total interest paid is ₹ 5,350.
107P / 100 = 5350.
107P = 5350 * 100.
P = (5350 * 100) / 107.
Since 5350 = 107 * 50, we have:
P = (107 * 50 * 100) / 107 = 50 * 100 = ₹ 5,000.
The amount borrowed was ₹ 5,000.

In simple interest, the interest for each period is calculated on the original principal amount. When the rate changes over different periods, the total simple interest is the sum of the interest accumulated during each period with its respective rate and duration.

This method applies specifically to simple interest. For compound interest, the principal would change after each period as accumulated interest is added to the principal.